HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. A nurse in a clinic is reviewing laboratory reports for a group of clients. Which of the following diseases should the nurse report to the state health department?
- A. Pertussis
- B. Group B streptococcal disease
- C. Respiratory syncytial virus
- D. Rotavirus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pertussis is the correct answer because it is a reportable disease that healthcare providers are required by law to report to public health authorities. This infectious disease poses a significant public health risk and needs to be monitored closely to prevent outbreaks and implement control measures. Group B streptococcal disease, Respiratory syncytial virus, and Rotavirus are important conditions but are not typically reportable to the state health department. These diseases may require specific precautions in healthcare settings, but they do not fall under mandatory reporting requirements.
2. The healthcare provider provides instructions to a client with a low magnesium level about the foods that are high in magnesium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Peas
- B. Oranges
- C. Apples
- D. Peanut butter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oranges are not high in magnesium. The other choices, such as peas, are good sources of magnesium. Peas, along with cauliflower and canned white tuna, are foods rich in magnesium. Oranges, although healthy, are not known for their high magnesium content.
3. Your patient has been diagnosed with giant cell arthritis. What medication will this patient most likely be given?
- A. High doses of aspirin
- B. High doses of prednisone
- C. Methotrexate
- D. Albuterol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: High doses of prednisone are commonly prescribed for giant cell arthritis to reduce inflammation. Aspirin is not typically used for this condition. Methotrexate is more commonly used for conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, not giant cell arthritis. Albuterol is a bronchodilator used for respiratory conditions, not for giant cell arthritis.
4. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?
- A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
- B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
- C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block
- D. Complete heart block
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.
5. What is an episiotomy?
- A. A surgical incision of the perineum to prevent tearing during delivery.
- B. Releasing the red plug from the cervix just before crowning occurs.
- C. An incision in the abdomen with which the baby can be delivered through.
- D. The severance of the umbilical cord between mother and child.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An episiotomy is a surgical incision of the perineum to prevent tearing during delivery. This procedure is performed to widen the vaginal opening and facilitate childbirth. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the expulsion of the mucus plug, not an episiotomy. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a different procedure, a cesarean section, where the baby is delivered through an incision in the abdomen. Choice D is incorrect as it pertains to cutting the umbilical cord, which is not related to an episiotomy.
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