Nursing Elites

1. Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse?

• A. Apical pulse
• B. Inspection
• C. Auscultation
• D. Percussion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An apical pulse check is used to determine if the patient has an irregular pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI) and is assessed using a stethoscope. Choice B, inspection, involves visual examination and is not used to assess pulse irregularities. Choice C, auscultation, involves listening to internal sounds using a stethoscope, which can be used to assess heart sounds but not specifically for pulse irregularities. Choice D, percussion, is a technique used to assess the density of body tissues or detect abnormal masses and is not used to determine pulse irregularities.

2. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

3. A nurse manager is receiving report and is faced with the following situations that require intervention. Which of the following should the nurse manager address first?

• A. No transport assistance is available to take the client to PT.
• B. A client is refusing care from an AP of the opposite gender.
• C. Three staff members have called to say they will be absent.
• D. Two nurses had a heated disagreement about a scheduling issue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Addressing the absence of three staff members should be the nurse manager's priority as it directly impacts staffing levels and patient care. This situation can lead to staffing shortages, affecting patient safety and workload distribution. Option A, lack of transport assistance, although important, can be addressed after ensuring adequate staffing. Option B involves a client's preference and can be addressed by assigning care appropriately. Option D, a disagreement between two nurses, is important but can be addressed after ensuring adequate staffing and patient care.

4. What does the mnemonic PERLA stand for in the assessment of the eyes?

• A. Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
• B. Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to light and acuity
• C. Patient eyes are equally responsive to light and acuity
• D. Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation.' PERLA is a mnemonic used in eye assessments to check for Pupils being equally reactive to Light and Accommodation. Choice B is incorrect as it includes irrelevant information about the eyes being recessed. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing the mention of pupils and accommodation. Choice D is incorrect as it misses the mention of accommodation.

5. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

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