HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?
- A. No change
- B. Less insulin
- C. More insulin
- D. Oral antidiabetic agents
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During periods of infection, clients with type 1 diabetes may require more insulin to manage the increased blood glucose levels caused by stress and illness. Insulin needs often rise during infections due to the body's increased resistance to the effects of insulin. Therefore, increasing insulin doses is crucial to maintain blood glucose control. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A ('No change') is inaccurate because during infections, insulin requirements typically increase. Option B ('Less insulin') is incorrect as the body's increased insulin resistance during infections usually necessitates higher insulin doses. Option D ('Oral antidiabetic agents') is not suitable for type 1 diabetes management as these medications are primarily used for type 2 diabetes.
2. A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
- A. ST depression
- B. Inverted T wave
- C. Prominent U wave
- D. Tall peaked T waves
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tall peaked T waves.' Tall peaked T waves are characteristic ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia. In hyperkalemia, the elevated potassium levels affect the myocardium, leading to changes in the ECG. ST depression (Choice A) is more commonly associated with myocardial ischemia or infarction. Inverted T wave (Choice B) is seen in conditions like myocardial ischemia or CNS events. Prominent U wave (Choice C) is typically associated with hypokalemia or certain medications. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse would expect to note tall peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram due to the elevated potassium level.
3. Which of the following changes was enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act?
- A. Creation of national health insurance exchanges for affordable insurance coverage
- B. Expansion of school-based health centers
- C. Free preventative services for all
- D. Medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act expanded school-based health centers to provide additional healthcare services to students. Choice A is incorrect because the creation of national health insurance exchanges was a key provision of the Affordable Care Act, but it was not the only change enacted by the legislation. Choice C is incorrect as while the Affordable Care Act did include provisions for free preventative services for certain groups, it was not applicable to all individuals. Choice D is incorrect as the Act did not specifically address medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding.
4. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?
- A. Structure audit
- B. Benchmarking
- C. Risk benefit analysis
- D. Root cause analysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.
5. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.
- A. 38 gtts/min
- B. 42 gtts/min
- C. 50 gtts/min
- D. 40 gtts/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the rate: 1000 cc/8 hours = 125 cc/hour. 125 cc/hour * 1 drop/20 cc * 1 hour/60 minutes = 40 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 40 gtts/min. Choice A (38 gtts/min) is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculation result. Choice B (42 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate. Choice C (50 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate either.
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