Nursing Elites

1. Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?

• A. No change
• B. Less insulin
• C. More insulin
• D. Oral antidiabetic agents

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During periods of infection, clients with type 1 diabetes may require more insulin to manage the increased blood glucose levels caused by stress and illness. Insulin needs often rise during infections due to the body's increased resistance to the effects of insulin. Therefore, increasing insulin doses is crucial to maintain blood glucose control. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A ('No change') is inaccurate because during infections, insulin requirements typically increase. Option B ('Less insulin') is incorrect as the body's increased insulin resistance during infections usually necessitates higher insulin doses. Option D ('Oral antidiabetic agents') is not suitable for type 1 diabetes management as these medications are primarily used for type 2 diabetes.

2. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

3. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
• D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

4. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

5. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.

• A. The fourth cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve
• B. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
• C. The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve
• D. The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve, which controls the muscles of the tongue. The other choices are incorrect because the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, the olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell, and there are only twelve cranial nerves, so there is no thirteenth cranial nerve.

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