select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

2. Which skin disorder most closely resembles and mimics dandruff?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dermatitis can closely resemble and mimic dandruff due to similar symptoms like flaking and itching. Lice infestation (choice A) is characterized by the presence of lice and their eggs attached to the hair shaft, different from dandruff. Scabies (choice B) is a contagious skin condition caused by mites, presenting as burrows, rashes, and intense itching, not typically resembling dandruff. Acne vulgaris (choice D) is a skin condition involving hair follicles and sebaceous glands, manifesting as pimples and inflammation, which is distinct from dandruff.

3. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

4. What is a major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs) is better coordination of care. EHRs allow healthcare providers to access and share patient information more efficiently, leading to improved coordination and continuity of care. Choice A, increased paperwork, is incorrect as EHRs aim to reduce paperwork by digitizing and centralizing health records. Choice C, higher risk of data breaches, is incorrect as EHRs have security measures in place to protect patient data. Choice D, more manual data entry, is incorrect as EHRs aim to automate and streamline data entry processes.

5. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.

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