Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis is commonly used among patients affected by fibromyalgia?

• A. Decreased self-care in activities of daily living related to fatigue
• B. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances
• C. Increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances
• D. At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased self-care in activities of daily living related to fatigue.' Patients with fibromyalgia commonly experience fatigue, which can lead to decreased ability to perform self-care activities. This nursing diagnosis addresses a direct consequence of fibromyalgia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the common manifestations of fibromyalgia. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances and increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances are not typical presentations of fibromyalgia. 'At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia' is not a common nursing diagnosis associated with fibromyalgia; swallowing disorders are not a primary symptom of this condition.

2. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?

• A. 30 drops per minute
• B. 25 drops per minute
• C. 20 drops per minute
• D. 22 drops per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

3. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

4. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?

• A. Intravenous potassium supplementation
• B. Intravenous calcium supplementation
• C. Kidney dialysis
• D. Parenteral nutrition

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.

5. A nurse manager observes an assistive personnel (AP) incorrectly transferring a client to the bedside commode. Which of the following should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the AP to the facility procedure manual
• B. Demonstrate the proper client transfer technique for the AP
• C. Instruct the AP to request assistance when unsure about a task
• D. Help the AP assist the client with the transfer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client by immediately intervening to help the AP with the transfer. This hands-on assistance can prevent any potential harm to the client. Referring the AP to the facility procedure manual (Choice A) might take time and delay the necessary immediate action. Demonstrating the proper technique (Choice B) can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Instructing the AP to request assistance (Choice C) is not the most urgent step when a client's safety is at risk.

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