HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. Which nursing diagnosis is commonly used among patients affected by fibromyalgia?
- A. Decreased self-care in activities of daily living related to fatigue
- B. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances
- C. Increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances
- D. At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased self-care in activities of daily living related to fatigue.' Patients with fibromyalgia commonly experience fatigue, which can lead to decreased ability to perform self-care activities. This nursing diagnosis addresses a direct consequence of fibromyalgia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the common manifestations of fibromyalgia. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances and increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances are not typical presentations of fibromyalgia. 'At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia' is not a common nursing diagnosis associated with fibromyalgia; swallowing disorders are not a primary symptom of this condition.
2. A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for developing diabetes?
- A. The 50-year-old client who does not engage in any physical exercise
- B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine daily
- C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
- D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight is at the highest risk for developing diabetes. Excess weight is a significant risk factor for diabetes as it can lead to insulin resistance and metabolic abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are also risk factors for diabetes, but being overweight has a stronger association with the development of the condition compared to lack of exercise, excessive alcohol consumption, or smoking.
3. Your patient has been diagnosed with orchiditis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about?
- A. This disorder often occurs as a result of streptococcus.
- B. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with ice.
- C. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with heat.
- D. This disorder is typically treated with surgery.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Orchiditis can be symptomatically treated with ice to reduce inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because orchiditis is not typically caused by streptococcus. Choice C is incorrect as heat is not the recommended treatment for orchiditis. Choice D is also incorrect as surgery is not the first-line treatment for orchiditis.
4. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?
- A. 30 drops per minute
- B. 25 drops per minute
- C. 20 drops per minute
- D. 22 drops per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
5. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
- B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
- C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
- D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
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