Nursing Elites

1. Diabetes insipidus is the result of:

• A. A diet high in sugar and carbohydrates.
• B. A complicated pregnancy.
• C. A disorder of the pancreas.
• D. A disorder of the pituitary gland.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is caused by a disorder of the pituitary gland affecting ADH regulation. This disorder results in the decreased production or release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not relate to the underlying cause of diabetes insipidus.

2. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

• A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
• B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
• C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
• D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

3. A nurse manager observes an assistive personnel (AP) incorrectly transferring a client to the bedside commode. Which of the following should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the AP to the facility procedure manual
• B. Demonstrate the proper client transfer technique for the AP
• C. Instruct the AP to request assistance when unsure about a task
• D. Help the AP assist the client with the transfer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client by immediately intervening to help the AP with the transfer. This hands-on assistance can prevent any potential harm to the client. Referring the AP to the facility procedure manual (Choice A) might take time and delay the necessary immediate action. Demonstrating the proper technique (Choice B) can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Instructing the AP to request assistance (Choice C) is not the most urgent step when a client's safety is at risk.

4. Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).

• A. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins
• B. The icteric stage: Flu-like symptoms occur
• C. The pre-icteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels
• D. The post-icteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The post-icteric stage of viral hepatitis is accurately described as the stage where jaundice and dark urine occur due to the accumulation of bilirubin. The resolution of jaundice and normalization of urine color are seen in this stage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. In the prodromal stage, symptoms like fatigue and malaise appear before jaundice. The icteric stage is characterized by jaundice, not flu-like symptoms. The pre-icteric stage does not typically involve elevated urine bilirubin levels, as this occurs after the icteric stage.

5. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.

• A. The fourth cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve
• B. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
• C. The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve
• D. The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve, which controls the muscles of the tongue. The other choices are incorrect because the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, the olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell, and there are only twelve cranial nerves, so there is no thirteenth cranial nerve.

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