Nursing Elites

1. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

2. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

• A. The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises.
• B. The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises.
• C. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
• D. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out; sodium ions build up, and metabolic acidosis increases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The progressive stage of shock is accurately described as the stage where histamine is released, leading to fluid and proteins leaking into surrounding tissues and the blood thickening. In this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, resulting in a cascade of events that worsen the shock state. Choice A is incorrect as hyperventilation and a rise in blood pH are more characteristic of the compensatory stage. Choice B is incorrect as hypoxia and a rise in lactic acid are more typical of the progressive stage. Choice D is incorrect as the described electrolyte imbalances and metabolic acidosis are more aligned with the refractory stage of shock.

3. Which of the following strategies can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans?

• A. Providing clear and understandable instructions
• B. Using medical jargon
• C. Limiting patient education
• D. Ignoring patient feedback

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing clear and understandable instructions can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans. Clear instructions help patients better understand their treatment plans, leading to increased compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Using medical jargon can confuse patients and reduce adherence. Limiting patient education deprives patients of essential information needed for adherence. Ignoring patient feedback can lead to misunderstandings and hinder the patient's commitment to the treatment plan.

4. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has end-stage heart failure. The client's partner tells the nurse she can no longer handle caring for the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request another family member to assist the client's partner with care
• B. Recommend the partner to place the client in a long-term care facility
• C. Contact the case manager to discuss discharge options
• D. Ask the provider to delay the client's discharge home for a few more days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should contact the case manager to discuss discharge options and support the client's partner. This action is appropriate as it involves seeking professional guidance and support for the client's partner who is struggling to care for the client. Option A is not the best choice as it solely focuses on involving another family member without addressing the partner's concerns directly. Option B is premature as recommending long-term care should be a well-considered decision involving multiple healthcare professionals. Option D delays the inevitable without providing a solution to the partner's current challenges.

5. Which of the following nursing interventions should be taken for a client who complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking his glyburide (DiaBeta)?

• A. Administer glyburide again
• B. Administer subcutaneous insulin and monitor blood glucose
• C. Monitor blood glucose closely, and look for signs of hypoglycemia
• D. Monitor blood glucose and assess for signs of hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a client complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking glyburide, the priority nursing intervention should be to monitor blood glucose closely and look for signs of hypoglycemia. Vomiting could indicate that the glyburide was not properly absorbed, potentially leading to hypoglycemia. Administering glyburide again (Choice A) could worsen hypoglycemia. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate without assessing the blood glucose first. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not the immediate concern in this situation.

Similar Questions