Nursing Elites

1. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

2. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
• B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
• C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
• D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.

3. A charge nurse is making staff assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following tasks should the nurse plan to delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Measuring oxygen saturation for a client who has dyspnea
• B. Inserting a rectal suppository for a client who is vomiting
• C. Performing nasal hygiene for a client who has an NG tube
• D. Pouching a client's ostomy bag for a new colostomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pouching a new colostomy is a task that can be safely and appropriately delegated to an assistive personnel as it falls within their scope of practice. Measuring oxygen saturation (Choice A) requires a higher level of training and assessment, making it unsuitable for delegation. Inserting a rectal suppository (Choice B) and performing nasal hygiene (Choice C) involve invasive procedures that are typically performed by licensed nursing staff due to the associated risks and complexities, making them inappropriate for delegation to assistive personnel.

4. What is the softening and thinning of the cervix during labor known as?

• A. Dilation
• B. Symphysis
• C. Effacement
• D. Hyperplasia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effacement is the correct term for the softening and thinning of the cervix during labor. It is the process where the cervix becomes thinner, allowing it to stretch and open as labor progresses. Choice A, 'Dilation,' is incorrect as it refers to the opening of the cervix. Choice B, 'Symphysis,' is incorrect as it refers to the joint that connects the two pubic bones. Choice D, 'Hyperplasia,' is incorrect as it refers to an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue.

5. While administering penicillin intravenously, you notice that the patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first action you should take?

• A. Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• B. Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• C. Call the doctor.
• D. Stop the intravenous flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate after administering penicillin intravenously is to stop the intravenous flow immediately. This can help prevent further complications by discontinuing the administration of the medication that might be causing the adverse effects. Decreasing or increasing the rate of medication flow may not address the underlying issue of the patient's adverse reaction. While it's important to involve the healthcare provider in such situations, the immediate priority is to halt the administration of the medication.

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