Nursing Elites

1. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

2. What is the most common cause of HHNS?

• A. Insulin overdose
• B. Removal of the adrenal gland
• C. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism
• D. Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

3. Diabetes insipidus is the result of:

• A. A diet high in sugar and carbohydrates.
• B. A complicated pregnancy.
• C. A disorder of the pancreas.
• D. A disorder of the pituitary gland.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is caused by a disorder of the pituitary gland affecting ADH regulation. This disorder results in the decreased production or release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not relate to the underlying cause of diabetes insipidus.

4. Steven John has type 1 diabetes mellitus and receives insulin. Which laboratory test will the nurse assess?

• A. Potassium
• B. AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
• C. Serum amylase
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. Patients with type 1 diabetes receiving insulin are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to insulin's effects on potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because AST, serum amylase, and sodium levels are not directly impacted by insulin therapy in type 1 diabetes and are not the primary concern that needs monitoring in this scenario.

5. Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?

• A. Subcutaneous
• B. Intramuscular
• C. IV bolus only
• D. IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion. In the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin is administered via IV bolus to quickly reduce blood glucose levels, followed by a continuous infusion to maintain control. Subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not used in this situation as they are not rapid or predictable enough to address the acute hyperglycemia seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. IV bolus alone without the continuous infusion may not provide sustained control of blood glucose levels, making choice C incorrect.

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