select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank

1. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

2. What is the most common cause of HHNS?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

3. Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high-risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Psychosocial. Alcohol, caffeine, or drug use are considered psychosocial risk factors as they are related to individual behavior, lifestyle choices, and social interactions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Social demographic factors (choice A) refer to characteristics of a population such as age, gender, education, income, etc. Environmental factors (choice B) include physical surroundings like air quality, housing conditions, etc. Biophysical factors (choice C) involve biological aspects like genetics, physiology, and health conditions.

4. The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because wound irrigation allows for the introduction of medications in solution form to the wound site. Choice A is incorrect because while wound irrigation can help with pain management indirectly by promoting healing, its primary purpose is not to reduce pain directly. Choice B is incorrect as wound irrigation primarily aims to cleanse the wound and remove contaminants rather than creating a 'clean' area to stop infection spread. Choice C is incorrect because wound irrigation does not involve pushing extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue; its main goal is to cleanse the wound and promote healing.

5. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

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