Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes cultural competence in healthcare?

• A. Ignoring cultural differences
• B. Understanding and respecting cultural differences
• C. Enforcing cultural norms
• D. Focusing solely on medical knowledge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cultural competence in healthcare involves understanding and respecting cultural differences to provide effective and respectful care to patients from diverse backgrounds. Choice A is incorrect as ignoring cultural differences goes against the principles of cultural competence. Choice C is wrong because enforcing cultural norms can be culturally insensitive and may not align with the patient's beliefs. Choice D is also incorrect as cultural competence encompasses more than just medical knowledge, including communication, empathy, and awareness of cultural factors.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unconscious following a motor-vehicle crash. The client requires immediate surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Transport the client to the operating room without verifying informed consent
• B. Ask the anesthesiologist to sign the consent
• C. Obtain telephone consent from the facility administrator before the surgery
• D. Delay the surgery until the nurse can obtain informed consent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, implied consent applies. Implied consent allows healthcare providers, including nurses, to proceed with necessary treatment or surgery without formally verifying informed consent. Choice A is correct because the priority in this scenario is to ensure the client receives timely medical intervention to address life-threatening conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in emergencies, waiting to obtain formal consent can delay critical treatment, risking the client's health and well-being.

3. In developing a disaster management plan for a hospital, which resource should be the highest priority to have available in response to a bioterrorism event?

• A. A mental health specialist on the response team
• B. A sufficient supply of PPE
• C. A system for tracking client information
• D. A network for communication between staff members and families

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a bioterrorism event, the highest priority resource to have available is a sufficient supply of personal protective equipment (PPE). PPE is crucial in protecting healthcare workers and other responders from exposure to biological agents. While mental health support, client information tracking systems, and communication networks are important components of disaster management, in the context of a bioterrorism event, ensuring the safety of staff through adequate PPE takes precedence over other resources.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of chlamydia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Report the infection to the local health department
• B. Apply an antiviral cream to lesions
• C. Instruct the client to use condoms until the treatment is completed
• D. Initiate contact precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the infection to the local health department. Chlamydia is a reportable disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities for tracking and control measures. Choice B is incorrect because chlamydia is a bacterial infection, not a viral infection, so antiviral cream would not be effective. Choice C is important advice for preventing the spread of chlamydia but is not the priority in this scenario. Choice D is not necessary for chlamydia, as it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact.

5. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

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