Nursing Elites

1. Which type of practice is most similar to research-based practice?

• A. Best practices
• B. Evidence-based practice
• C. Benchmark practices
• D. Standard-based practice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Evidence-based practice. Evidence-based practice relies on research to guide clinical decisions, mirroring the approach of research-based practice. Choice A, Best practices, refers to established methods or techniques that are widely accepted as superior. Choice C, Benchmark practices, typically involves setting standards or goals for performance comparison. Choice D, Standard-based practice, usually pertains to adhering to established norms or guidelines.

2. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

3. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of chlamydia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Report the infection to the local health department
• B. Apply an antiviral cream to lesions
• C. Instruct the client to use condoms until the treatment is completed
• D. Initiate contact precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the infection to the local health department. Chlamydia is a reportable disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities for tracking and control measures. Choice B is incorrect because chlamydia is a bacterial infection, not a viral infection, so antiviral cream would not be effective. Choice C is important advice for preventing the spread of chlamydia but is not the priority in this scenario. Choice D is not necessary for chlamydia, as it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is unconscious and whose partner is their health care surrogate. The partner wishes to discontinue the client's feeding tube, but another family member tells the nurse that they want the client to continue receiving treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. You should contact the provider about your wishes for your family member.
• B. We'll need to have the nursing supervisor review the client's advance directives.
• C. You should speak with the facility's ethics committee about your concerns.
• D. As the health care surrogate, the client's partner can make this decision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D because the health care surrogate, as designated by the client, has the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the client when they are unable to do so. This authority includes decisions about treatment continuation or withdrawal. Option A is incorrect as the family member's wishes do not override the legal authority of the health care surrogate. Option B is not the most appropriate action in this situation as the advance directives are already clear by the designation of a health care surrogate. Option C is not necessary at this stage since the health care surrogate can make the decision without involving the ethics committee.

Similar Questions