HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. Which type of practice is most similar to research-based practice?
- A. Best practices
- B. Evidence-based practice
- C. Benchmark practices
- D. Standard-based practice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Evidence-based practice. Evidence-based practice relies on research to guide clinical decisions, mirroring the approach of research-based practice. Choice A, Best practices, refers to established methods or techniques that are widely accepted as superior. Choice C, Benchmark practices, typically involves setting standards or goals for performance comparison. Choice D, Standard-based practice, usually pertains to adhering to established norms or guidelines.
2. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage VI
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.
3. When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion?
- A. Inevitable
- B. Missed
- C. Habitual
- D. Threatened
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Habitual.' Habitual abortion is defined as three or more consecutive miscarriages, making it the appropriate term for this situation. Choice A, 'Inevitable,' refers to a miscarriage that cannot be prevented. Choice B, 'Missed,' refers to a miscarriage where the fetus has died but has not been expelled. Choice D, 'Threatened,' refers to a situation where there is bleeding in early pregnancy but the cervix remains closed.
4. Steven John has type 1 diabetes mellitus and receives insulin. Which laboratory test will the nurse assess?
- A. Potassium
- B. AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
- C. Serum amylase
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. Patients with type 1 diabetes receiving insulin are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to insulin's effects on potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because AST, serum amylase, and sodium levels are not directly impacted by insulin therapy in type 1 diabetes and are not the primary concern that needs monitoring in this scenario.
5. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?
- A. Intravenous potassium supplementation
- B. Intravenous calcium supplementation
- C. Kidney dialysis
- D. Parenteral nutrition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.
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