you are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient the patient has the moro reflex how should you interpret this neurological ass
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Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet

1. You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is typically present in infants up to around 4-6 months of age and is characterized by the infant's response to a sudden loss of support or loud noise. It is not a normal finding in adolescents or older individuals. Therefore, if an adolescent patient exhibits the Moro reflex during a neurological assessment, it is considered abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Moro reflex is not expected or normal among adolescents and does not specifically indicate the status of either the peripheral or central nervous system in this age group.

2. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.

3. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

4. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

5. Which insulin has the most rapid onset of action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lispro insulin has the most rapid onset of action among the options provided. It is a rapid-acting insulin analog that is designed to control postprandial hyperglycemia effectively. Lente insulin (Choice A) and Ultralente insulin (Choice C) are intermediate-acting insulins, which have a slower onset of action compared to Lispro. Humulin N (Choice D) is a neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin, which is an intermediate-acting insulin, not rapid-acting like Lispro. Therefore, the correct choice is Lispro.

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