HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?
- A. Vernix.
- B. Lanugo.
- C. Milia.
- D. Vibrissae.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.
2. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?
- A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
- B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
- C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
- D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.
3. Jansen is receiving metformin (Glucophage). What will be the best plan of the nurse with regard to patient education with this drug? Select one that does not apply.
- A. It stimulates the pancreas to produce more insulin.
- B. It must be taken after meals.
- C. It decreases sugar production in the liver.
- D. It inhibits absorption of carbohydrates.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct choice that does not apply is A. Metformin does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin; instead, it works by decreasing sugar production in the liver, inhibiting carbohydrate absorption, and reducing insulin resistance. It is recommended to take metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not inhibit the absorption of carbohydrates.
4. What is the main purpose of quality improvement in healthcare?
- A. To increase healthcare costs
- B. To improve patient outcomes
- C. To decrease patient satisfaction
- D. To increase hospital stays
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main purpose of quality improvement in healthcare is to improve patient outcomes by enhancing the quality and safety of healthcare services. Choice A is incorrect because the goal is not to increase healthcare costs but to optimize resources and provide cost-effective care. Choice C is incorrect as the aim is to increase patient satisfaction through better outcomes. Choice D is incorrect as the objective is to reduce hospital stays by improving care efficiency and effectiveness.
5. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?
- A. Intravenous potassium supplementation
- B. Intravenous calcium supplementation
- C. Kidney dialysis
- D. Parenteral nutrition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.
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