HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?
- A. Vernix.
- B. Lanugo.
- C. Milia.
- D. Vibrissae.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is unconscious and whose partner is their health care surrogate. The partner wishes to discontinue the client's feeding tube, but another family member tells the nurse that they want the client to continue receiving treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. You should contact the provider about your wishes for your family member.
- B. We'll need to have the nursing supervisor review the client's advance directives.
- C. You should speak with the facility's ethics committee about your concerns.
- D. As the health care surrogate, the client's partner can make this decision.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D because the health care surrogate, as designated by the client, has the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the client when they are unable to do so. This authority includes decisions about treatment continuation or withdrawal. Option A is incorrect as the family member's wishes do not override the legal authority of the health care surrogate. Option B is not the most appropriate action in this situation as the advance directives are already clear by the designation of a health care surrogate. Option C is not necessary at this stage since the health care surrogate can make the decision without involving the ethics committee.
3. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?
- A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
- B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
- C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
- D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory report and notes that the serum calcium level is 4.0 mg/dL. The healthcare professional understands that which condition most likely caused this serum calcium level?
- A. Prolonged bed rest
- B. Renal insufficiency
- C. Hyperparathyroidism
- D. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prolonged bed rest can lead to hypocalcemia due to decreased mobility and bone resorption. In this scenario, the low serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is likely a result of decreased bone activity and calcium release due to prolonged bed rest. Renal insufficiency would more likely lead to hypercalcemia due to impaired excretion of calcium by the kidneys. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by increased calcium levels as a result of excess parathyroid hormone. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D can cause hypercalcemia by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.
5. In developing a disaster management plan for a hospital, which resource should be the highest priority to have available in response to a bioterrorism event?
- A. A mental health specialist on the response team
- B. A sufficient supply of PPE
- C. A system for tracking client information
- D. A network for communication between staff members and families
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a bioterrorism event, the highest priority resource to have available is a sufficient supply of personal protective equipment (PPE). PPE is crucial in protecting healthcare workers and other responders from exposure to biological agents. While mental health support, client information tracking systems, and communication networks are important components of disaster management, in the context of a bioterrorism event, ensuring the safety of staff through adequate PPE takes precedence over other resources.
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