Nursing Elites

1. What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?

• A. Vernix.
• B. Lanugo.
• C. Milia.
• D. Vibrissae.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer. The client’s adult child asks the nurse for information about the client’s treatment plan. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. I will ask your mother's primary care provider to speak with you
• B. What would you like to know about your mother's treatment?
• C. I cannot provide this information to you without your mother's consent
• D. You will have to speak directly to your mother about her treatment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not provide treatment information without the client's consent.

3. A nurse working on a med-surg unit is managing the care of four clients. The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is at risk for pressure ulcers and has an albumin level of 4.2 g/dL
• B. A client with type 1 DM who uses an insulin pump
• C. A client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds
• D. A client with orthostatic hypotension receiving IV fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for a client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds to ensure comprehensive care coordination. In this case, the need for a conference may be to discuss potential adjustments in heparin therapy, monitor for adverse effects, or ensure proper anticoagulation levels. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically indicate the need for interdisciplinary collaboration related to the client's condition or treatment. Therefore, they are not the priority for scheduling an interdisciplinary conference.

4. A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

• A. ST depression
• B. Inverted T wave
• C. Prominent U wave
• D. Tall peaked T waves

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tall peaked T waves.' Tall peaked T waves are characteristic ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia. In hyperkalemia, the elevated potassium levels affect the myocardium, leading to changes in the ECG. ST depression (Choice A) is more commonly associated with myocardial ischemia or infarction. Inverted T wave (Choice B) is seen in conditions like myocardial ischemia or CNS events. Prominent U wave (Choice C) is typically associated with hypokalemia or certain medications. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse would expect to note tall peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram due to the elevated potassium level.

5. Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?

• A. The knee
• B. The shoulder
• C. The elbow
• D. The fingertips

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.

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