Nursing Elites

1. What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?

• A. Vernix.
• B. Lanugo.
• C. Milia.
• D. Vibrissae.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer. The client’s adult child asks the nurse for information about the client’s treatment plan. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. I will ask your mother's primary care provider to speak with you
• B. What would you like to know about your mother's treatment?
• C. I cannot provide this information to you without your mother's consent
• D. You will have to speak directly to your mother about her treatment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not provide treatment information without the client's consent.

3. Your client has a doctor's order that reads 'advance diet as tolerated'. This client has returned from the recovery room after an appendectomy and he states, 'I am hungry'. What would you offer this client to consume?

• A. Cheese and crackers
• B. Apple sauce
• C. Chicken broth
• D. A peanut butter sandwich

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken broth is a suitable option for a post-appendectomy patient beginning to tolerate oral intake. It is clear liquid and easily digestible, making it a gentle choice for someone who has just returned from surgery. Cheese and crackers, apple sauce, and a peanut butter sandwich are not ideal options for an individual who needs to start with a light and easily digestible diet.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory report and notes that the serum calcium level is 4.0 mg/dL. The healthcare professional understands that which condition most likely caused this serum calcium level?

• A. Prolonged bed rest
• B. Renal insufficiency
• C. Hyperparathyroidism
• D. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolonged bed rest can lead to hypocalcemia due to decreased mobility and bone resorption. In this scenario, the low serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is likely a result of decreased bone activity and calcium release due to prolonged bed rest. Renal insufficiency would more likely lead to hypercalcemia due to impaired excretion of calcium by the kidneys. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by increased calcium levels as a result of excess parathyroid hormone. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D can cause hypercalcemia by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.

5. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
• D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

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