to resolve a conflict between staff members regarding potential changes in policy a nurse manager decides to implement the changes she prefers regardl
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HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet

1. To resolve a conflict between staff members regarding potential changes in policy, a nurse manager decides to implement the changes she prefers regardless of the feelings of those who oppose those changes. Which of the following conflict-resolution strategies is the nurse manager using?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager is utilizing the competing conflict-resolution strategy. Competing involves making decisions based on one's preferences without considering the opinions or feelings of others. In this scenario, the nurse manager is unilaterally implementing changes despite opposition, demonstrating a competitive approach. Collaborating involves working together to find a mutually beneficial solution, compromising involves finding a middle ground acceptable to both parties, and cooperating involves working together towards a shared goal. These options are not applicable in this situation as the nurse manager is imposing her preferred changes without regard for others' input.

2. Which of the following is considered normal for the neonate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A normal head circumference for a neonate typically falls within the range of 12.6 to 14.5 inches. Choice A is incorrect because the chest circumference for a neonate is usually smaller. Choice B is incorrect as the length of a neonate is typically shorter. Choice C is incorrect as the weight of a neonate is usually measured in grams and falls within a different range.

3. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

4. What is the main objective of palliative care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main objective of palliative care is to provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life. Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients facing serious illnesses by providing relief from symptoms such as pain, stress, and other physical and emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to cure the disease but rather to manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of palliative care is not to extend hospital stays unnecessarily but to improve the patient's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is not solely focused on treatment but takes a holistic approach to care that includes addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.

5. Your client has a doctor's order that reads 'advance diet as tolerated'. This client has returned from the recovery room after an appendectomy and he states, 'I am hungry'. What would you offer this client to consume?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken broth is a suitable option for a post-appendectomy patient beginning to tolerate oral intake. It is clear liquid and easily digestible, making it a gentle choice for someone who has just returned from surgery. Cheese and crackers, apple sauce, and a peanut butter sandwich are not ideal options for an individual who needs to start with a light and easily digestible diet.

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