to resolve a conflict between staff members regarding potential changes in policy a nurse manager decides to implement the changes she prefers regardl
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HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet

1. To resolve a conflict between staff members regarding potential changes in policy, a nurse manager decides to implement the changes she prefers regardless of the feelings of those who oppose those changes. Which of the following conflict-resolution strategies is the nurse manager using?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager is utilizing the competing conflict-resolution strategy. Competing involves making decisions based on one's preferences without considering the opinions or feelings of others. In this scenario, the nurse manager is unilaterally implementing changes despite opposition, demonstrating a competitive approach. Collaborating involves working together to find a mutually beneficial solution, compromising involves finding a middle ground acceptable to both parties, and cooperating involves working together towards a shared goal. These options are not applicable in this situation as the nurse manager is imposing her preferred changes without regard for others' input.

2. What is the primary focus of primary healthcare?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preventive care. Primary healthcare emphasizes preventive care, which includes promoting overall health, preventing diseases, and providing early intervention to avoid the progression of illnesses. Emergency care (choice A) is focused on immediate medical attention for urgent health situations but is not the primary focus of primary healthcare. Specialized treatment (choice C) refers to care provided by specialists for specific health conditions, which is not the main focus of primary healthcare. Hospital-based services (choice D) involve inpatient care provided in a hospital setting, which is not the primary focus of primary healthcare that aims to provide comprehensive and accessible care at the community level.

3. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

4. A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.

5. Marlisa has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1. She asks Nurse Errol what this means. What is the best response by the nurse? Select the one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the inability of the beta cells in the pancreas to secrete insulin. Choice A is correct because it highlights the role of beta cells. Choice B is accurate as the endocrine function of the pancreas includes insulin secretion. Choice C is true as without insulin, ketoacidosis can develop. Choice D is incorrect as the exocrine function of the pancreas involves secreting digestive enzymes, not estrogen.

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