Nursing Elites

1. To resolve a conflict between staff members regarding potential changes in policy, a nurse manager decides to implement the changes she prefers regardless of the feelings of those who oppose those changes. Which of the following conflict-resolution strategies is the nurse manager using?

• A. Competing
• B. Collaborating
• C. Compromising
• D. Cooperating

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager is utilizing the competing conflict-resolution strategy. Competing involves making decisions based on one's preferences without considering the opinions or feelings of others. In this scenario, the nurse manager is unilaterally implementing changes despite opposition, demonstrating a competitive approach. Collaborating involves working together to find a mutually beneficial solution, compromising involves finding a middle ground acceptable to both parties, and cooperating involves working together towards a shared goal. These options are not applicable in this situation as the nurse manager is imposing her preferred changes without regard for others' input.

2. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

3. What are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?

• A. Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle
• B. Pain and inflammation in the bones
• C. Deformity of the foot
• D. Infection in the joint leading to arthritis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the typical early signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Pain and inflammation in the bones (choice B) are more indicative of conditions like osteomyelitis; deformity of the foot (choice C) is characteristic of talipes or clubfoot; and infection in the joint leading to arthritis (choice D) is more aligned with septic joint or supportive arthritis.

4. Marlisa has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1. She asks Nurse Errol what this means. What is the best response by the nurse? Select the one that does not apply.

• A. Your beta cells should be able to secrete insulin, but cannot.
• B. The endocrine function of your pancreas is to secrete insulin.
• C. Without insulin, you will develop ketoacidosis (DKA).
• D. The exocrine function of your pancreas is to secrete Estrogen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the inability of the beta cells in the pancreas to secrete insulin. Choice A is correct because it highlights the role of beta cells. Choice B is accurate as the endocrine function of the pancreas includes insulin secretion. Choice C is true as without insulin, ketoacidosis can develop. Choice D is incorrect as the exocrine function of the pancreas involves secreting digestive enzymes, not estrogen.

5. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level?

• A. The client with renal failure
• B. The client who is taking diuretics
• C. The client with hyperaldosteronism
• D. The client who is taking corticosteroids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking diuretics are at risk for hyponatremia due to excessive sodium loss. In this scenario, a sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is commonly associated with diuretic use. Options A, C, and D are not the highest risk factors for developing low sodium levels in this context. Renal failure, hyperaldosteronism, and corticosteroid use are not directly linked to sodium loss as seen with diuretics.

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