HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
- B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
- C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
- D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.
2. What is the purpose of a healthcare audit?
- A. To increase paperwork
- B. To assess and improve quality of care
- C. To reduce patient satisfaction
- D. To limit healthcare services
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'To assess and improve quality of care.' Healthcare audits are conducted to evaluate the quality and efficiency of healthcare services provided. Choice A, 'To increase paperwork,' is incorrect as audits aim to streamline processes and reduce unnecessary paperwork. Choice C, 'To reduce patient satisfaction,' is incorrect as audits are meant to identify areas for improvement to enhance patient satisfaction. Choice D, 'To limit healthcare services,' is also incorrect as audits help in optimizing healthcare services rather than limiting them.
3. What does the mnemonic PERLA stand for in the assessment of the eyes?
- A. Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
- B. Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to light and acuity
- C. Patient eyes are equally responsive to light and acuity
- D. Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation.' PERLA is a mnemonic used in eye assessments to check for Pupils being equally reactive to Light and Accommodation. Choice B is incorrect as it includes irrelevant information about the eyes being recessed. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing the mention of pupils and accommodation. Choice D is incorrect as it misses the mention of accommodation.
4. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of:
- A. 1 in 85 births.
- B. 1 in 5400 births.
- C. 1 in 2700 births.
- D. 1 in 540 births
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 in 85 births. The rate of twin pregnancies is approximately 1 in 85 births. This means that twins are more common compared to triplets, which occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct frequency of twin pregnancies as stated in the question.
5. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?
- A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
- B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
- C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
- D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.
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