HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
- B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
- C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
- D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.
2. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client's serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the physician, and the physician prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Peas
- B. Cauliflower
- C. Low-fat yogurt
- D. Processed oat cereals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is processed oat cereals. Processed oat cereals are often high in sodium content, which should be avoided in cases of hypernatremia. Peas, cauliflower, and low-fat yogurt are generally low in sodium and are not typically contraindicated in hypernatremia. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
3. Which nursing diagnosis is commonly used among patients affected by fibromyalgia?
- A. Decreased self-care in activities of daily living related to fatigue
- B. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances
- C. Increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances
- D. At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased self-care in activities of daily living related to fatigue.' Patients with fibromyalgia commonly experience fatigue, which can lead to decreased ability to perform self-care activities. This nursing diagnosis addresses a direct consequence of fibromyalgia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the common manifestations of fibromyalgia. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances and increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances are not typical presentations of fibromyalgia. 'At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia' is not a common nursing diagnosis associated with fibromyalgia; swallowing disorders are not a primary symptom of this condition.
4. Your 54-year-old male HIV-positive patient has just expired. How should you care for this deceased patient?
- A. Bathe the patient, but it is still necessary to use standard precautions because the patient is deceased.
- B. Place the patient in a negative pressure isolated area of the morgue.
- C. Double shroud the patient to prevent the spread of infection.
- D. Bathe the patient using the same standard precautions you used when he was alive.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Even after a patient has expired, standard precautions should be maintained to prevent the spread of infection. Bathing the deceased patient should be done using the same standard precautions followed when the patient was alive. This includes using personal protective equipment and following proper infection control procedures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because standard precautions must still be adhered to even after the patient has passed away to ensure safety and prevent the transmission of infections.
5. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?
- A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
- B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
- C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
- D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.
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