Nursing Elites

1. The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication PO once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?

• A. 1 Tablet
• B. 2 Tablets
• C. 3 Tablets
• D. 4 Tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total dosage prescribed (500 mg) by the dosage per tablet (250 mg per tablet). 500 mg / 250 mg per tablet = 2 tablets. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 tablets. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).

• A. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins
• B. The icteric stage: Flu-like symptoms occur
• C. The pre-icteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels
• D. The post-icteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The post-icteric stage of viral hepatitis is accurately described as the stage where jaundice and dark urine occur due to the accumulation of bilirubin. The resolution of jaundice and normalization of urine color are seen in this stage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. In the prodromal stage, symptoms like fatigue and malaise appear before jaundice. The icteric stage is characterized by jaundice, not flu-like symptoms. The pre-icteric stage does not typically involve elevated urine bilirubin levels, as this occurs after the icteric stage.

3. A nurse is assisting with the orientation of a newly licensed nurse. The newly licensed nurse is having trouble focusing and has difficulty completing care for his assigned clients. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Offer to provide care for his clients while he takes a break
• B. Advise him to complete less time-consuming tasks first
• C. Ask other staff members to take over some of his tasks
• D. Recommend that he take time to plan at the beginning of his shift

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to recommend that the new nurse takes time to plan at the beginning of his shift. Planning ahead can help improve time management and focus. Option A is not ideal as it does not address the root cause of the issue and may not promote independence. Option B may not be effective if the nurse is struggling with time management in general. Option C involves shifting responsibilities to others without addressing the new nurse's need for improvement in managing his workload, which should be the priority.

4. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

5. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

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