Nursing Elites

1. The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication PO once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?

• A. 1 Tablet
• B. 2 Tablets
• C. 3 Tablets
• D. 4 Tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total dosage prescribed (500 mg) by the dosage per tablet (250 mg per tablet). 500 mg / 250 mg per tablet = 2 tablets. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 tablets. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient's medical record because they have a 'need to know'? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Student nurses caring for a particular patient
• B. Registered nurses when they are not caring for a particular patient
• C. The Vice President for nursing who is investigating a patient fall
• D. Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Student nurses, licensed practical nurses, the Vice President for nursing investigating a fall, and quality assurance nurses have a 'need to know' basis to access patient records. Registered nurses who are not directly involved in the care of a patient do not have a legitimate reason or 'need to know' to access that patient's medical records, making choice B the correct answer. The Vice President for nursing investigating a specific incident and licensed practical nurses directly involved in a patient's care have legitimate reasons to access the medical records, ensuring continuity and quality of care.

3. A nurse in a long-term care facility is caring for a client who reports the AP repositioned him in bed using excessive force. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Document in the client's chart that an incident report has been filed.
• B. Contact the nurse manager.
• C. Reassure the client that the staff is well trained.
• D. Call risk management to interview the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the nurse manager. By doing so, the nurse can escalate the issue appropriately, ensuring that the incident is addressed and necessary actions are taken. Documenting in the client's chart that an incident report has been filed (Choice A) may be necessary but should not be the first step. Reassuring the client that the staff is well trained (Choice C) does not address the client's concern and the need for intervention. Calling risk management to interview the client (Choice D) may be premature at this stage and should be handled by the nurse manager first.

4. Which of the following changes was enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act?

• A. Creation of national health insurance exchanges for affordable insurance coverage
• B. Expansion of school-based health centers
• C. Free preventative services for all
• D. Medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act expanded school-based health centers to provide additional healthcare services to students. Choice A is incorrect because the creation of national health insurance exchanges was a key provision of the Affordable Care Act, but it was not the only change enacted by the legislation. Choice C is incorrect as while the Affordable Care Act did include provisions for free preventative services for certain groups, it was not applicable to all individuals. Choice D is incorrect as the Act did not specifically address medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding.

5. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

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