Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following strategies can help reduce healthcare-associated infections?

• A. Using outdated medical equipment
• B. Implementing strict hygiene protocols
• C. Increasing patient wait times
• D. Reducing nursing staff

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Implementing strict hygiene protocols can help reduce healthcare-associated infections. By maintaining high standards of hygiene, such as proper handwashing, sterilization of equipment, and cleanliness of the environment, the spread of infections can be minimized. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using outdated medical equipment can increase the risk of infections due to lack of proper maintenance and sterilization. Increasing patient wait times may lead to frustration but does not directly impact infection rates. Reducing nursing staff can compromise patient care and monitoring but is not specifically related to reducing healthcare-associated infections.

2. A charge nurse notices that two staff nurses are not taking meal breaks during their shifts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Discuss time management strategies with the nurses
• B. Provide coverage for the nurses' breaks
• C. Determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks
• D. Review policies for taking scheduled breaks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks. This action is crucial as it allows the charge nurse to understand the underlying causes for the behavior. By identifying the reasons, the nurse can then address the root of the issue effectively. Option A is incorrect because discussing time management strategies may not address the specific reasons for not taking breaks. Option B is incorrect as providing coverage for breaks does not address the underlying cause of the issue. Option D is also incorrect as reviewing policies should come after understanding the reasons for the behavior.

3. A client with a tumor refuses surgery, but the client's partner wants it. Which is the deciding factor in determining if the surgery will be done?

• A. Whether the partner is the client's durable power of attorney for healthcare
• B. Whether the client understands the risk of refusing the procedure
• C. Whether the client's refusal is based on religious belief
• D. Whether the facility's ethical committee reaches a consensus on the case

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client's understanding of the risks involved in refusing the surgery is crucial in determining the course of action. In this scenario, the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity take precedence. Choice A is not directly relevant to the decision-making process regarding surgery. Choice C, religious beliefs, may influence the decision but should not be the determining factor in this case. Choice D involving the facility's ethical committee is not typically involved in individual patient care decisions.

4. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

• A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
• B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
• C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
• D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

5. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

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