Nursing Elites

1. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level?

• A. The client with renal failure
• B. The client who is taking diuretics
• C. The client with hyperaldosteronism
• D. The client who is taking corticosteroids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking diuretics are at risk for hyponatremia due to excessive sodium loss. In this scenario, a sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is commonly associated with diuretic use. Options A, C, and D are not the highest risk factors for developing low sodium levels in this context. Renal failure, hyperaldosteronism, and corticosteroid use are not directly linked to sodium loss as seen with diuretics.

2. A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Insulin must be injected because it needs to work quickly.
• B. Insulin can't be in a pill because it is destroyed in stomach acid.
• C. Have you talked to your doctor about taking pills instead?
• D. I know it is tough, but you will get used to the shots soon.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.

3. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

4. Your patient has been diagnosed with orchiditis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about?

• A. This disorder often occurs as a result of streptococcus.
• B. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with ice.
• C. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with heat.
• D. This disorder is typically treated with surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Orchiditis can be symptomatically treated with ice to reduce inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because orchiditis is not typically caused by streptococcus. Choice C is incorrect as heat is not the recommended treatment for orchiditis. Choice D is also incorrect as surgery is not the first-line treatment for orchiditis.

5. Diabetes insipidus is the result of:

• A. A diet high in sugar and carbohydrates.
• B. A complicated pregnancy.
• C. A disorder of the pancreas.
• D. A disorder of the pituitary gland.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is caused by a disorder of the pituitary gland affecting ADH regulation. This disorder results in the decreased production or release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not relate to the underlying cause of diabetes insipidus.

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