Nursing Elites

1. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer. The client’s adult child asks the nurse for information about the client’s treatment plan. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. I will ask your mother's primary care provider to speak with you
• B. What would you like to know about your mother's treatment?
• C. I cannot provide this information to you without your mother's consent
• D. You will have to speak directly to your mother about her treatment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not provide treatment information without the client's consent.

3. A nurse is supervising an assistive personnel (AP) who is feeding a client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions by the AP should the nurse identify as correct technique?

• A. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime
• B. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal
• C. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals
• D. Instructing the client to place her chin toward her chest when swallowing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a client with dysphagia is to instruct them to place their chin toward their chest when swallowing. This action helps to close off the airway during swallowing, reducing the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime helps prevent aspiration, but this is not the responsibility of the AP. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal can lead to dehydration and is not a recommended practice. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals is not specifically related to improving swallowing safety for clients with dysphagia.

4. When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion?

• A. Inevitable
• B. Missed
• C. Habitual
• D. Threatened

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Habitual.' Habitual abortion is defined as three or more consecutive miscarriages, making it the appropriate term for this situation. Choice A, 'Inevitable,' refers to a miscarriage that cannot be prevented. Choice B, 'Missed,' refers to a miscarriage where the fetus has died but has not been expelled. Choice D, 'Threatened,' refers to a situation where there is bleeding in early pregnancy but the cervix remains closed.

5. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

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