Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of chlamydia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Report the infection to the local health department
• B. Apply an antiviral cream to lesions
• C. Instruct the client to use condoms until the treatment is completed
• D. Initiate contact precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the infection to the local health department. Chlamydia is a reportable disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities for tracking and control measures. Choice B is incorrect because chlamydia is a bacterial infection, not a viral infection, so antiviral cream would not be effective. Choice C is important advice for preventing the spread of chlamydia but is not the priority in this scenario. Choice D is not necessary for chlamydia, as it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact.

3. Your patient has been diagnosed with orchiditis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about?

• A. This disorder often occurs as a result of streptococcus.
• B. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with ice.
• C. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with heat.
• D. This disorder is typically treated with surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Orchiditis can be symptomatically treated with ice to reduce inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because orchiditis is not typically caused by streptococcus. Choice C is incorrect as heat is not the recommended treatment for orchiditis. Choice D is also incorrect as surgery is not the first-line treatment for orchiditis.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unconscious following a motor-vehicle crash. The client requires immediate surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Transport the client to the operating room without verifying informed consent
• B. Ask the anesthesiologist to sign the consent
• C. Obtain telephone consent from the facility administrator before the surgery
• D. Delay the surgery until the nurse can obtain informed consent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, implied consent applies. Implied consent allows healthcare providers, including nurses, to proceed with necessary treatment or surgery without formally verifying informed consent. Choice A is correct because the priority in this scenario is to ensure the client receives timely medical intervention to address life-threatening conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in emergencies, waiting to obtain formal consent can delay critical treatment, risking the client's health and well-being.

5. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

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