which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as mobitz ii
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HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet

1. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.

2. Which of the following is considered normal for the neonate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A normal head circumference for a neonate typically falls within the range of 12.6 to 14.5 inches. Choice A is incorrect because the chest circumference for a neonate is usually smaller. Choice B is incorrect as the length of a neonate is typically shorter. Choice C is incorrect as the weight of a neonate is usually measured in grams and falls within a different range.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who reports acute pain but refuses IM medication. The nurse distracts the client and quickly administers the injection. This illustrates which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Battery.' Administering the injection without the client's consent constitutes battery. Assault involves the threat of harm, not the actual act. False imprisonment is restraining a client against their will, which does not apply here. Libel refers to a false written statement, which is not relevant in this scenario.

4. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.

5. A client with type 1 DM has a finger stick glucose level of 258mg/dl at bedtime. An order for sliding scale insulin exists. The nurse should:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with type 1 DM has a high glucose level at bedtime. The appropriate action for the nurse is to administer the sliding scale insulin as ordered. This insulin regimen is specifically designed to manage high blood glucose levels. Calling the physician is not necessary as the protocol for sliding scale insulin is already in place. Encouraging fluid intake or providing orange juice is not the correct intervention for addressing high blood glucose levels in this case.

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