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HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?
- A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
- B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
- C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block
- D. Complete heart block
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.
2. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?
- A. Alcoholism
- B. Renal insufficiency
- C. Hypoparathyroidism
- D. Tumor lysis syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.
3. Based on the signs and symptoms of erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems, and skin nodules in your 32-year-old female patient, what disorder would you most likely suspect?
- A. Leukemia
- B. Histoplasmosis
- C. Pneumocystis jiroveci
- D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The signs and symptoms described point towards rheumatoid arthritis. Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac issues, and skin nodules are classic manifestations of rheumatic fever, which is a complication of untreated streptococcal infection. This condition can lead to rheumatoid arthritis over time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the provided signs and symptoms, and they are not associated with the clinical presentation described.
4. Select all of the risk factors that are associated with deep vein thrombosis.
- A. The use of oral contraceptives
- B. Type B and O blood
- C. Rh negative blood
- D. Underweight
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "The use of oral contraceptives." Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include factors such as immobility, surgery, cancer, obesity, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood type and Rh factor do not play a role in the development of deep vein thrombosis, and being underweight is not typically considered a risk factor for this condition.
5. The healthcare provider provides instructions to a client with a low magnesium level about the foods that are high in magnesium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Peas
- B. Oranges
- C. Apples
- D. Peanut butter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oranges are not high in magnesium. The other choices, such as peas, are good sources of magnesium. Peas, along with cauliflower and canned white tuna, are foods rich in magnesium. Oranges, although healthy, are not known for their high magnesium content.
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