which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adolescent with a closed head injury is at the highest risk for papilledema due to increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is often a consequence of elevated intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like head trauma. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with an increased risk of papilledema compared to a closed head injury, which is more likely to lead to elevated intracranial pressure and subsequent papilledema.

2. Which of the following nursing interventions should be taken for a client who complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking his glyburide (DiaBeta)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a client complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking glyburide, the priority nursing intervention should be to monitor blood glucose closely and look for signs of hypoglycemia. Vomiting could indicate that the glyburide was not properly absorbed, potentially leading to hypoglycemia. Administering glyburide again (Choice A) could worsen hypoglycemia. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate without assessing the blood glucose first. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not the immediate concern in this situation.

3. A nurse manager is leading a discussion about ethical dilemmas. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager include as an example of an ethical dilemma?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ethical dilemma involves a situation where moral principles conflict, such as in the case of a parent wanting their adolescent to receive treatment against their will. In option A, a minor burn from spilled coffee does not present a conflict of moral principles. Option B describes a medical error, not necessarily a conflict of moral principles. Option D involves an issue of professional practice and patient safety but does not inherently pose a conflict of moral principles.

4. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.

5. Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An apical pulse check is used to determine if the patient has an irregular pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI) and is assessed using a stethoscope. Choice B, inspection, involves visual examination and is not used to assess pulse irregularities. Choice C, auscultation, involves listening to internal sounds using a stethoscope, which can be used to assess heart sounds but not specifically for pulse irregularities. Choice D, percussion, is a technique used to assess the density of body tissues or detect abnormal masses and is not used to determine pulse irregularities.

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