Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unconscious following a motor-vehicle crash. The client requires immediate surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Transport the client to the operating room without verifying informed consent
• B. Ask the anesthesiologist to sign the consent
• C. Obtain telephone consent from the facility administrator before the surgery
• D. Delay the surgery until the nurse can obtain informed consent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, implied consent applies. Implied consent allows healthcare providers, including nurses, to proceed with necessary treatment or surgery without formally verifying informed consent. Choice A is correct because the priority in this scenario is to ensure the client receives timely medical intervention to address life-threatening conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in emergencies, waiting to obtain formal consent can delay critical treatment, risking the client's health and well-being.

2. The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute hypernatremia. What should the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? (select one that does not apply)

• A. Reduce IV access
• B. Limit length of visits
• C. Restrict fluids to 1500 mL per day
• D. Conduct frequent neurologic checks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with acute hypernatremia, the nurse should include interventions like reducing free water losses, correcting sodium levels slowly, monitoring neurologic status, and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Conducting frequent neurologic checks is essential in assessing the patient's neurological status and detecting any changes promptly. Therefore, this action should not be excluded from the plan of care. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to managing acute hypernatremia and can be safely excluded from the plan of care. Reducing IV access, limiting length of visits, and restricting fluids to 1500 mL per day are not appropriate actions for managing acute hypernatremia.

3. A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?

• A. A client who reports right-sided flank pain and is diaphoretic
• B. A client who has active bleeding from a puncture wound of the left groin area
• C. A client who has a raised red skin rash on his arms, neck, and face
• D. A client who reports shortness of breath and left neck and shoulder pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.

4. A client with DM has an above-knee amputation because of severe peripheral vascular disease. Two days following surgery, when preparing the client for dinner, what is the nurse's primary responsibility?

• A. Check the client's serum glucose level
• B. Assist the client out of bed to the chair
• C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• D. Ensure that the client's residual limb is elevated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's serum glucose level. In a client with diabetes who just had surgery, monitoring the serum glucose level is crucial to ensure proper management of the condition. This helps in preventing complications related to blood sugar fluctuations. Assisting the client out of bed may be important but not the primary responsibility at this time. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position or ensuring the residual limb is elevated are important interventions for comfort and circulation but are not the primary concern in this scenario.

5. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

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