Nursing Elites

1. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

2. Which of the following strategies can help reduce healthcare-associated infections?

• A. Using outdated medical equipment
• B. Implementing strict hygiene protocols
• C. Increasing patient wait times
• D. Reducing nursing staff

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Implementing strict hygiene protocols can help reduce healthcare-associated infections. By maintaining high standards of hygiene, such as proper handwashing, sterilization of equipment, and cleanliness of the environment, the spread of infections can be minimized. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using outdated medical equipment can increase the risk of infections due to lack of proper maintenance and sterilization. Increasing patient wait times may lead to frustration but does not directly impact infection rates. Reducing nursing staff can compromise patient care and monitoring but is not specifically related to reducing healthcare-associated infections.

3. What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

• A. Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
• B. Caused by the overproduction of platelets.
• C. A bleeding disorder that is characterized by too few platelets.
• D. Treated with immune system-boosting medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a bleeding disorder characterized by a low number of platelets in the blood. This condition is not highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which involves abnormal clotting throughout the body (coagulation), leading to depletion of platelets. Choice B is incorrect because idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is actually characterized by a decrease in platelet count, not an overproduction. While immune system-boosting medications may be used in some cases, the primary treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura focuses on increasing platelet counts or managing symptoms.

4. A nurse working on a med-surg unit is managing the care of four clients. The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is at risk for pressure ulcers and has an albumin level of 4.2 g/dL
• B. A client with type 1 DM who uses an insulin pump
• C. A client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds
• D. A client with orthostatic hypotension receiving IV fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for a client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds to ensure comprehensive care coordination. In this case, the need for a conference may be to discuss potential adjustments in heparin therapy, monitor for adverse effects, or ensure proper anticoagulation levels. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically indicate the need for interdisciplinary collaboration related to the client's condition or treatment. Therefore, they are not the priority for scheduling an interdisciplinary conference.

5. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
• B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
• C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
• D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.

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