Nursing Elites

1. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

2. Select the criteria that is accurately paired with its indication of birth weight or gestational age.

• A. Low birth weight: The neonate's weight is less than 1,500 g at the time of delivery.
• B. Appropriate for gestational age: The neonate's weight ranges from the 10th to the 90th percentile.
• C. Large for gestational age: The neonate's weight is above the 99th percentile.
• D. Small for gestational age: The neonate's weight is below the 20th percentile.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Appropriate for gestational age (AGA) indicates a neonate's weight ranging from the 10th to the 90th percentile. This range signifies that the baby's weight is within the normal range for their gestational age. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about the criteria and do not correctly correspond to the indicated birth weight or gestational age. Low birth weight typically refers to a weight below 2,500 g, large for gestational age above the 90th percentile, and small for gestational age below the 10th percentile.

3. Which of the following is an example of a chronic disease?

• A. Common cold
• B. Influenza
• C. Diabetes
• D. Food poisoning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetes is classified as a chronic disease because it is a long-term condition that requires ongoing management. Choices A, B, and D, which are the common cold, influenza, and food poisoning, are acute illnesses that typically resolve on their own without long-lasting implications.

4. Steven John has type 1 diabetes mellitus and receives insulin. Which laboratory test will the nurse assess?

• A. Potassium
• B. AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
• C. Serum amylase
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. Patients with type 1 diabetes receiving insulin are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to insulin's effects on potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because AST, serum amylase, and sodium levels are not directly impacted by insulin therapy in type 1 diabetes and are not the primary concern that needs monitoring in this scenario.

5. What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

• A. Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
• B. Caused by the overproduction of platelets.
• C. A bleeding disorder that is characterized by too few platelets.
• D. Treated with immune system-boosting medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a bleeding disorder characterized by a low number of platelets in the blood. This condition is not highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which involves abnormal clotting throughout the body (coagulation), leading to depletion of platelets. Choice B is incorrect because idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is actually characterized by a decrease in platelet count, not an overproduction. While immune system-boosting medications may be used in some cases, the primary treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura focuses on increasing platelet counts or managing symptoms.

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