HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. A nurse is preparing to delegate bathing and turning of a newly admitted client who has end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following assessments should the nurse make before delegating care?
- A. Is the client's family present so the AP can show them how to turn the client?
- B. Has data been collected about specific client needs related to turning?
- C. Does the AP have time to change the client's central IV line dressing after turning her?
- D. Has the AP checked the client's pain level prior to turning her?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before delegating the task of bathing and turning a client with end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP), the nurse must assess specific client needs related to turning. This assessment ensures that the delegated care is tailored to the client's individual requirements, promoting safe and effective care. Option A is incorrect because the presence of the client's family is not directly related to assessing the client's specific needs for turning. Option C is incorrect as it refers to a different task (changing the central IV line dressing) and is not directly related to the turning assessment. Option D is incorrect as checking the client's pain level, although important, is not directly related to the specific needs related to turning the client.
2. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:
- A. 8 to 12 months of age.
- B. 20 to 24 months of age.
- C. 16 to 20 months of age.
- D. 12 to 16 months of age.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.
3. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?
- A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
- B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
- C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
- D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.
4. Low birth weight is defined as a newborn's weight of:
- A. 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- B. 1500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- C. 2500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
- D. 1500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low birth weight is defined as 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age. This means that any newborn weighing 2500 grams or less is considered to have a low birth weight, irrespective of how many weeks they were in the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they specify a weight of 1500 grams or less, which is not the standard definition of low birth weight. The correct definition is 2500 grams or less, not influenced by gestational age.
5. A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
- A. ST depression
- B. Inverted T wave
- C. Prominent U wave
- D. Tall peaked T waves
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tall peaked T waves.' Tall peaked T waves are characteristic ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia. In hyperkalemia, the elevated potassium levels affect the myocardium, leading to changes in the ECG. ST depression (Choice A) is more commonly associated with myocardial ischemia or infarction. Inverted T wave (Choice B) is seen in conditions like myocardial ischemia or CNS events. Prominent U wave (Choice C) is typically associated with hypokalemia or certain medications. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse would expect to note tall peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram due to the elevated potassium level.
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