a nurse is preparing to delegate bathing and turning of a newly admitted client who has end stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel ap whic
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Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet

1. A nurse is preparing to delegate bathing and turning of a newly admitted client who has end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following assessments should the nurse make before delegating care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before delegating the task of bathing and turning a client with end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP), the nurse must assess specific client needs related to turning. This assessment ensures that the delegated care is tailored to the client's individual requirements, promoting safe and effective care. Option A is incorrect because the presence of the client's family is not directly related to assessing the client's specific needs for turning. Option C is incorrect as it refers to a different task (changing the central IV line dressing) and is not directly related to the turning assessment. Option D is incorrect as checking the client's pain level, although important, is not directly related to the specific needs related to turning the client.

2. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 in 85 births. The rate of twin pregnancies is approximately 1 in 85 births. This means that twins are more common compared to triplets, which occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct frequency of twin pregnancies as stated in the question.

3. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

4. Which of the following is considered normal for the neonate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A normal head circumference for a neonate typically falls within the range of 12.6 to 14.5 inches. Choice A is incorrect because the chest circumference for a neonate is usually smaller. Choice B is incorrect as the length of a neonate is typically shorter. Choice C is incorrect as the weight of a neonate is usually measured in grams and falls within a different range.

5. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

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