Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following strategies can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans?

• A. Providing clear and understandable instructions
• B. Using medical jargon
• C. Limiting patient education
• D. Ignoring patient feedback

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing clear and understandable instructions can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans. Clear instructions help patients better understand their treatment plans, leading to increased compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Using medical jargon can confuse patients and reduce adherence. Limiting patient education deprives patients of essential information needed for adherence. Ignoring patient feedback can lead to misunderstandings and hinder the patient's commitment to the treatment plan.

2. Which patient is exercising their right to autonomy in the context of patient rights?

• A. An 86-year-old female who remains independent in terms of the activities of daily living.
• B. An unemancipated 16-year-old who chooses to not have an intravenous line.
• C. A 32-year-old who does not need the help of the nurse to bathe and groom themselves.
• D. A 99-year-old who wants CPR despite the fact that the nurse and doctor do not think that it would be successful.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A 99-year-old exercising their right to autonomy in the context of patient rights by choosing CPR. Autonomy in healthcare refers to the patient's right to make their own decisions about their care, even if healthcare providers may disagree. In this scenario, the 99-year-old patient is exercising autonomy by making an informed choice about their medical treatment, despite healthcare professionals having a different opinion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly demonstrate the exercise of autonomy in decision-making regarding medical treatment, making them incorrect.

3. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

• A. The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises.
• B. The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises.
• C. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
• D. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out; sodium ions build up, and metabolic acidosis increases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The progressive stage of shock is accurately described as the stage where histamine is released, leading to fluid and proteins leaking into surrounding tissues and the blood thickening. In this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, resulting in a cascade of events that worsen the shock state. Choice A is incorrect as hyperventilation and a rise in blood pH are more characteristic of the compensatory stage. Choice B is incorrect as hypoxia and a rise in lactic acid are more typical of the progressive stage. Choice D is incorrect as the described electrolyte imbalances and metabolic acidosis are more aligned with the refractory stage of shock.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is performing triage for a group of clients who were in a train crash. Which of the following clients should the nurse tag as emergent?

• A. A client who has an open fracture of the femur
• B. A client who has periorbital ecchymosis
• C. A client who has asymmetrical thorax
• D. A client who has a deep-partial thickness burn on the lower extremities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a triage situation, an asymmetrical thorax suggests a potentially life-threatening condition such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, requiring immediate attention. This client should be tagged as emergent. Periorbital ecchymosis and deep-partial thickness burns, while concerning, may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. An open fracture of the femur, although serious, can be prioritized after addressing emergent cases.

5. What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

• A. Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
• B. Caused by the overproduction of platelets.
• C. A bleeding disorder that is characterized by too few platelets.
• D. Treated with immune system-boosting medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a bleeding disorder characterized by a low number of platelets in the blood. This condition is not highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which involves abnormal clotting throughout the body (coagulation), leading to depletion of platelets. Choice B is incorrect because idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is actually characterized by a decrease in platelet count, not an overproduction. While immune system-boosting medications may be used in some cases, the primary treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura focuses on increasing platelet counts or managing symptoms.

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