Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following strategies can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans?

• A. Providing clear and understandable instructions
• B. Using medical jargon
• C. Limiting patient education
• D. Ignoring patient feedback

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing clear and understandable instructions can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans. Clear instructions help patients better understand their treatment plans, leading to increased compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Using medical jargon can confuse patients and reduce adherence. Limiting patient education deprives patients of essential information needed for adherence. Ignoring patient feedback can lead to misunderstandings and hinder the patient's commitment to the treatment plan.

2. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

3. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has end-stage heart failure. The client's partner tells the nurse she can no longer handle caring for the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request another family member to assist the client's partner with care
• B. Recommend the partner to place the client in a long-term care facility
• C. Contact the case manager to discuss discharge options
• D. Ask the provider to delay the client's discharge home for a few more days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should contact the case manager to discuss discharge options and support the client's partner. This action is appropriate as it involves seeking professional guidance and support for the client's partner who is struggling to care for the client. Option A is not the best choice as it solely focuses on involving another family member without addressing the partner's concerns directly. Option B is premature as recommending long-term care should be a well-considered decision involving multiple healthcare professionals. Option D delays the inevitable without providing a solution to the partner's current challenges.

4. Ben injects his insulin as prescribed, but then gets busy and forgets to eat. What will the best assessment of the nurse reveal?

• A. The client will be very thirsty.
• B. The client will complain of nausea.
• C. The client will need to urinate.
• D. The client will have moist skin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In this scenario, since Ben took his insulin but forgot to eat, he is at risk of developing hypoglycemia. Moist skin is a sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low. Thirstiness (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels). Nausea (choice B) and frequent urination (choice C) are not typical immediate signs of hypoglycemia caused by missing a meal after insulin administration.

5. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
• D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

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