Nursing Elites

1. What is the softening and thinning of the cervix during labor known as?

• A. Dilation
• B. Symphysis
• C. Effacement
• D. Hyperplasia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effacement is the correct term for the softening and thinning of the cervix during labor. It is the process where the cervix becomes thinner, allowing it to stretch and open as labor progresses. Choice A, 'Dilation,' is incorrect as it refers to the opening of the cervix. Choice B, 'Symphysis,' is incorrect as it refers to the joint that connects the two pubic bones. Choice D, 'Hyperplasia,' is incorrect as it refers to an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue.

2. A nurse manager is reviewing isolation guidelines with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of isolation guidelines?

• A. I will have a client who is on airborne precautions wear a mask when out of their room.
• B. I will wear an N95 respirator mask for a client who is on droplet precautions.
• C. I will place a client who has compromised immunity in a negative-pressure airflow room.
• D. I will instruct visitors to wear a mask when visiting a client who is on contact precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Having a client on airborne precautions wear a mask when out of their room is appropriate to prevent the spread of infection. Choice B is incorrect because the healthcare provider, not the client, wears an N95 respirator mask for a client on droplet precautions. Choice C is incorrect because negative-pressure airflow rooms are used for clients with airborne infections, not compromised immunity. Choice D is incorrect because visitors, not clients, should wear a mask when visiting a client on contact precautions.

3. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

4. Which of the following chronic complications is associated with diabetes?

• A. Dizziness, dyspnea on exertion, and coronary artery disease.
• B. Retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease.
• C. Leg ulcers, cerebral ischemic events, and pulmonary infarcts.
• D. Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and cardiac arrhythmias.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Diabetes is associated with chronic complications such as retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease. Choice A includes symptoms rather than chronic complications of diabetes. Choice C lists conditions not typically associated with diabetes. Choice D describes symptoms that may occur in various medical conditions but are not specific chronic complications of diabetes.

5. The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication PO once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?

• A. 1 Tablet
• B. 2 Tablets
• C. 3 Tablets
• D. 4 Tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total dosage prescribed (500 mg) by the dosage per tablet (250 mg per tablet). 500 mg / 250 mg per tablet = 2 tablets. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 tablets. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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