HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?
- A. Alcoholism
- B. Renal insufficiency
- C. Hypoparathyroidism
- D. Tumor lysis syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.
2. Which type of practice is most similar to research-based practice?
- A. Best practices
- B. Evidence-based practice
- C. Benchmark practices
- D. Standard-based practice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Evidence-based practice. Evidence-based practice relies on research to guide clinical decisions, mirroring the approach of research-based practice. Choice A, Best practices, refers to established methods or techniques that are widely accepted as superior. Choice C, Benchmark practices, typically involves setting standards or goals for performance comparison. Choice D, Standard-based practice, usually pertains to adhering to established norms or guidelines.
3. A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?
- A. A client who reports right-sided flank pain and is diaphoretic
- B. A client who has active bleeding from a puncture wound of the left groin area
- C. A client who has a raised red skin rash on his arms, neck, and face
- D. A client who reports shortness of breath and left neck and shoulder pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.
4. You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding?
- A. It is normal among adolescents.
- B. It indicates that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system.
- C. It indicates that the patient has an intact central nervous system.
- D. It is not a normal finding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is typically present in infants up to around 4-6 months of age and is characterized by the infant's response to a sudden loss of support or loud noise. It is not a normal finding in adolescents or older individuals. Therefore, if an adolescent patient exhibits the Moro reflex during a neurological assessment, it is considered abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Moro reflex is not expected or normal among adolescents and does not specifically indicate the status of either the peripheral or central nervous system in this age group.
5. A charge nurse on an obstetrical unit is preparing the shift assignment. Which of the following clients should be assigned to an RN who has floated from a medical-surgical unit?
- A. A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has premature rupture of membranes
- B. A multigravida client who has preeclampsia and is receiving misoprostol for induction of labor
- C. A primigravida client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump
- D. A client who has gestational diabetes and is receiving biweekly nonstress tests
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A nurse who floated from a medical-surgical unit would be appropriate to care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump. This client requires monitoring of the postoperative incision site, pain management through the PCA pump, and assessment for any signs of complications related to the surgery. Assigning this client to an RN with experience in postoperative care aligns with providing specialized and appropriate care. Choices A, B, and D involve conditions or procedures specific to obstetrics that would be better managed by a nurse with obstetrical experience, making them incorrect choices for the floated RN.
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