Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

• A. Alcoholism
• B. Renal insufficiency
• C. Hypoparathyroidism
• D. Tumor lysis syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

2. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

• A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
• B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
• C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
• D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

3. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

4. A client with DM states, 'I cannot eat big meals; I prefer to snack throughout the day.' The nurse should carefully explain that the:

• A. Regulated food intake is crucial for control
• B. Restricting salt and sugar is the main concern
• C. Opting for small, frequent meals aids digestion
• D. Consuming large meals can contribute to weight issues

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with diabetes, regulated food intake is crucial for controlling blood glucose levels. Choice A is the correct answer because maintaining consistent meal sizes and timings helps in managing blood sugar levels effectively. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring salt and sugar intake is important, it is not the primary consideration in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as the focus is on regulating food intake rather than aiding digestion. Choice D is also incorrect because consuming large meals can indeed lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels, but the primary concern in this case is the regulation of food intake for better control of diabetes.

5. A client is preparing for an elective mastectomy. The client is wearing a plain gold wedding band. Which of the following is an appropriate procedure for taking care of this client's ring?

• A. Agree to keep the ring for the client until after surgery
• B. Place the ring in the bag with the client's clothing
• C. Tape the ring securely to the client's finger
• D. Place the client's ring in the facility safe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, placing the client's ring in the facility safe is the most appropriate procedure. This ensures the ring is kept secure and prevents any risk of loss or damage during the surgery. Agreeing to keep the ring for the client could raise concerns about accountability, while placing it in the bag with the client's clothing might lead to misplacement. Taping the ring securely to the client's finger is not recommended as it may hinder blood circulation or cause discomfort.

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