Nursing Elites

1. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

2. What is the main objective of palliative care?

• A. To cure the disease
• B. To provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life
• C. To extend hospital stays
• D. To focus solely on treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main objective of palliative care is to provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life. Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients facing serious illnesses by providing relief from symptoms such as pain, stress, and other physical and emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to cure the disease but rather to manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of palliative care is not to extend hospital stays unnecessarily but to improve the patient's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is not solely focused on treatment but takes a holistic approach to care that includes addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.

3. Select all of the risk factors that are associated with deep vein thrombosis.

• A. The use of oral contraceptives
• B. Type B and O blood
• C. Rh negative blood
• D. Underweight

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "The use of oral contraceptives." Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include factors such as immobility, surgery, cancer, obesity, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood type and Rh factor do not play a role in the development of deep vein thrombosis, and being underweight is not typically considered a risk factor for this condition.

4. What is the normal sodium level in the body?

• A. 135 to 145 milliequivalents per liter.
• B. 3 to 5 milliequivalents per liter.
• C. 135 to 145 microequivalents per liter.
• D. 3 to 5 microequivalents per liter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 135 to 145 milliequivalents per liter. The normal range for sodium levels in the body is expressed in milliequivalents per liter, not microequivalents. Choice B and D provide a significantly lower range which is not within the normal values for sodium. Choice C incorrectly states 'microequivalents' instead of the correct unit 'milliequivalents'. Therefore, A is the correct answer.

5. You are working on a pediatric unit. Which toy or other diversional item or activity is most appropriate for your 18-month-old patient?

• A. Story books
• B. Beach balls
• C. An interactive play session with other children less than 2 years of age
• D. Pickup sticks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A beach ball is appropriate for an 18-month-old as it is safe and can help with motor skills development. Choice A, storybooks, may not be suitable for this age group due to limited attention span. Choice C involves interaction with other children which may not always be feasible in a healthcare setting. Choice D, pickup sticks, poses a choking hazard and is not suitable for toddlers.

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