Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?

• A. The knee
• B. The shoulder
• C. The elbow
• D. The fingertips

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who requests information about the prevalence of Tay-Sachs disease. Which of the following resources should the nurse use to obtain this information?

• A. The client's health care provider
• B. A collaborative, user-edited website
• C. The facility's case manager
• D. An evidence-based nursing journal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An evidence-based nursing journal is the correct choice for the nurse to obtain information about the prevalence of Tay-Sachs disease. These journals contain peer-reviewed research and studies conducted by experts in the field, providing accurate and reliable information. Choice A, the client's health care provider, may have general information but may not provide detailed prevalence data. Choice B, a collaborative, user-edited website, is not a reliable source as the information may be inaccurate or outdated. Choice C, the facility's case manager, is unlikely to have specific prevalence data on Tay-Sachs disease.

3. A charge nurse on an obstetrical unit is preparing the shift assignment. Which of the following clients should be assigned to an RN who has floated from a medical-surgical unit?

• A. A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has premature rupture of membranes
• B. A multigravida client who has preeclampsia and is receiving misoprostol for induction of labor
• C. A primigravida client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump
• D. A client who has gestational diabetes and is receiving biweekly nonstress tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A nurse who floated from a medical-surgical unit would be appropriate to care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump. This client requires monitoring of the postoperative incision site, pain management through the PCA pump, and assessment for any signs of complications related to the surgery. Assigning this client to an RN with experience in postoperative care aligns with providing specialized and appropriate care. Choices A, B, and D involve conditions or procedures specific to obstetrics that would be better managed by a nurse with obstetrical experience, making them incorrect choices for the floated RN.

4. What is the softening and thinning of the cervix during labor known as?

• A. Dilation
• B. Symphysis
• C. Effacement
• D. Hyperplasia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effacement is the correct term for the softening and thinning of the cervix during labor. It is the process where the cervix becomes thinner, allowing it to stretch and open as labor progresses. Choice A, 'Dilation,' is incorrect as it refers to the opening of the cervix. Choice B, 'Symphysis,' is incorrect as it refers to the joint that connects the two pubic bones. Choice D, 'Hyperplasia,' is incorrect as it refers to an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue.

5. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

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