a nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a left leg below the knee amputation which of the following client statements indicates t
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HESI LPN

HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a left leg below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following client statements indicates the potential need for a referral to an occupational therapist?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's statement about adjusting to using crutches while recovering suggests a potential need for occupational therapy referral. Occupational therapists assist individuals in regaining independence in activities of daily living, including mobility aids and adaptations. Choices B, C, and D are more indicative of emotional or financial concerns and may require referrals to other healthcare professionals like counselors or financial advisors, rather than occupational therapists.

2. A nurse is preparing to complete an incident report regarding a medication error. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify the medication name and dosage administered to the client in the incident report. This information is crucial for accurate documentation and investigation of the medication error. Choice A is incorrect because incident reports are usually kept confidential and not for personal keeping. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining an order from the client's provider is not necessary to complete an incident report. Choice D, while important, is not the only essential information needed for the incident report.

3. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

4. Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion. In the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin is administered via IV bolus to quickly reduce blood glucose levels, followed by a continuous infusion to maintain control. Subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not used in this situation as they are not rapid or predictable enough to address the acute hyperglycemia seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. IV bolus alone without the continuous infusion may not provide sustained control of blood glucose levels, making choice C incorrect.

5. Your patient has been diagnosed with orchiditis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Orchiditis can be symptomatically treated with ice to reduce inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because orchiditis is not typically caused by streptococcus. Choice C is incorrect as heat is not the recommended treatment for orchiditis. Choice D is also incorrect as surgery is not the first-line treatment for orchiditis.

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