HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. Low birth weight is defined as a newborn's weight of:
- A. 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- B. 1500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- C. 2500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
- D. 1500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low birth weight is defined as 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age. This means that any newborn weighing 2500 grams or less is considered to have a low birth weight, irrespective of how many weeks they were in the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they specify a weight of 1500 grams or less, which is not the standard definition of low birth weight. The correct definition is 2500 grams or less, not influenced by gestational age.
2. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?
- A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
- B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
- C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
- D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.
3. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.
- A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
- B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
- C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
- D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.
4. Which of the following is a benefit of the U.S. health-care system?
- A. With cost savings from technology, more Americans now have health-care insurance.
- B. Quality of care has improved in the United States.
- C. Care in the United States has shifted to a prevention focus rather than an illness focus.
- D. The use of technology is projected to decrease health-care costs and improve clinical outcomes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the use of technology and electronic health records is projected to decrease health-care costs and improve clinical outcomes, quality, and safety. Choice A is incorrect because it states that very few Americans have no health-care insurance, which is not a benefit of the U.S. health-care system. Choice B may be true, but it does not directly address a benefit of the health-care system. Choice C is not necessarily a benefit but rather a shift in focus, so it is also incorrect.
5. The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute hypernatremia. What should the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? (select one that does not apply)
- A. Reduce IV access
- B. Limit length of visits
- C. Restrict fluids to 1500 mL per day
- D. Conduct frequent neurologic checks
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a patient with acute hypernatremia, the nurse should include interventions like reducing free water losses, correcting sodium levels slowly, monitoring neurologic status, and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Conducting frequent neurologic checks is essential in assessing the patient's neurological status and detecting any changes promptly. Therefore, this action should not be excluded from the plan of care. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to managing acute hypernatremia and can be safely excluded from the plan of care. Reducing IV access, limiting length of visits, and restricting fluids to 1500 mL per day are not appropriate actions for managing acute hypernatremia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access