Nursing Elites

1. What is an episiotomy?

• A. A surgical incision of the perineum to prevent tearing during delivery.
• B. Releasing the red plug from the cervix just before crowning occurs.
• C. An incision in the abdomen with which the baby can be delivered through.
• D. The severance of the umbilical cord between mother and child.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An episiotomy is a surgical incision of the perineum to prevent tearing during delivery. This procedure is performed to widen the vaginal opening and facilitate childbirth. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the expulsion of the mucus plug, not an episiotomy. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a different procedure, a cesarean section, where the baby is delivered through an incision in the abdomen. Choice D is incorrect as it pertains to cutting the umbilical cord, which is not related to an episiotomy.

2. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

3. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

4. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
• D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

5. A nurse manager observes an assistive personnel (AP) incorrectly transferring a client to the bedside commode. Which of the following should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the AP to the facility procedure manual
• B. Demonstrate the proper client transfer technique for the AP
• C. Instruct the AP to request assistance when unsure about a task
• D. Help the AP assist the client with the transfer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client by immediately intervening to help the AP with the transfer. This hands-on assistance can prevent any potential harm to the client. Referring the AP to the facility procedure manual (Choice A) might take time and delay the necessary immediate action. Demonstrating the proper technique (Choice B) can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Instructing the AP to request assistance (Choice C) is not the most urgent step when a client's safety is at risk.

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