Nursing Elites

1. Based on the signs and symptoms of erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems, and skin nodules in your 32-year-old female patient, what disorder would you most likely suspect?

• A. Leukemia
• B. Histoplasmosis
• C. Pneumocystis jiroveci
• D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The signs and symptoms described point towards rheumatoid arthritis. Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac issues, and skin nodules are classic manifestations of rheumatic fever, which is a complication of untreated streptococcal infection. This condition can lead to rheumatoid arthritis over time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the provided signs and symptoms, and they are not associated with the clinical presentation described.

2. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

3. Which of the following is the best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratio?

• A. The more patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs.
• B. Greater patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality.
• C. Adequate nurse levels do not impact the prevalence of urinary tract infections.
• D. Community nursing ratios do not impact Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) rates.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratios is that they decrease patient mortality. Choice A is incorrect because having more patients can lead to increased workload and decreased attention per patient. Choice C is incorrect as adequate nurse levels can indeed impact the prevalence of infections. Choice D is incorrect as community nursing ratios can impact MRSA rates due to potential transmission risks in healthcare settings.

4. What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

• A. Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
• B. Caused by the overproduction of platelets.
• C. A bleeding disorder that is characterized by too few platelets.
• D. Treated with immune system-boosting medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a bleeding disorder characterized by a low number of platelets in the blood. This condition is not highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which involves abnormal clotting throughout the body (coagulation), leading to depletion of platelets. Choice B is incorrect because idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is actually characterized by a decrease in platelet count, not an overproduction. While immune system-boosting medications may be used in some cases, the primary treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura focuses on increasing platelet counts or managing symptoms.

5. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?

• A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
• B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
• C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
• D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.

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