Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of quality improvement in healthcare?

• A. To increase healthcare costs
• B. To improve patient outcomes
• C. To decrease patient satisfaction
• D. To increase hospital stays

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of quality improvement in healthcare is to improve patient outcomes by enhancing the quality and safety of healthcare services. Choice A is incorrect because the goal is not to increase healthcare costs but to optimize resources and provide cost-effective care. Choice C is incorrect as the aim is to increase patient satisfaction through better outcomes. Choice D is incorrect as the objective is to reduce hospital stays by improving care efficiency and effectiveness.

2. Which of the following best describes evidence-based practice?

• A. Using outdated research
• B. Relying on personal experience alone
• C. Integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence
• D. Disregarding patient preferences

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evidence-based practice involves integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence to make informed decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect as evidence-based practice relies on current and relevant research. Choice B is incorrect as it emphasizes the importance of not relying solely on personal experience. Choice D is incorrect as patient preferences play a significant role in evidence-based practice.

3. While administering penicillin intravenously, you notice that the patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first action you should take?

• A. Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• B. Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• C. Call the doctor.
• D. Stop the intravenous flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate after administering penicillin intravenously is to stop the intravenous flow immediately. This can help prevent further complications by discontinuing the administration of the medication that might be causing the adverse effects. Decreasing or increasing the rate of medication flow may not address the underlying issue of the patient's adverse reaction. While it's important to involve the healthcare provider in such situations, the immediate priority is to halt the administration of the medication.

4. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

• A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
• B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
• C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block
• D. Complete heart block

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.

5. What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?

• A. Vernix.
• B. Lanugo.
• C. Milia.
• D. Vibrissae.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.

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