Nursing Elites

1. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?

• A. 30 drops per minute
• B. 25 drops per minute
• C. 20 drops per minute
• D. 22 drops per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

• A. The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises.
• B. The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises.
• C. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
• D. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out; sodium ions build up, and metabolic acidosis increases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The progressive stage of shock is accurately described as the stage where histamine is released, leading to fluid and proteins leaking into surrounding tissues and the blood thickening. In this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, resulting in a cascade of events that worsen the shock state. Choice A is incorrect as hyperventilation and a rise in blood pH are more characteristic of the compensatory stage. Choice B is incorrect as hypoxia and a rise in lactic acid are more typical of the progressive stage. Choice D is incorrect as the described electrolyte imbalances and metabolic acidosis are more aligned with the refractory stage of shock.

3. A charge nurse making rounds observes that an assistive personnel (AP) has applied wrist restraints to a client who is agitated and does not have a prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Remove the restraints from the client's wrists
• B. Review the chart for nonrestraint alternatives for agitation
• C. Speak with the AP about the incident
• D. Inform the unit manager of the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to remove the restraints from the client's wrists. Restraints should not be applied without a prescription due to the risk of harm to the client. Removing the restraints promptly is a priority to ensure the client's safety. Reviewing nonrestraint alternatives, speaking with the AP, and informing the unit manager can follow after ensuring the client's immediate safety by removing the restraints.

4. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

5. A charge nurse is making staff assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following tasks should the nurse plan to delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Measuring oxygen saturation for a client who has dyspnea
• B. Inserting a rectal suppository for a client who is vomiting
• C. Performing nasal hygiene for a client who has an NG tube
• D. Pouching a client's ostomy bag for a new colostomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pouching a new colostomy is a task that can be safely and appropriately delegated to an assistive personnel as it falls within their scope of practice. Measuring oxygen saturation (Choice A) requires a higher level of training and assessment, making it unsuitable for delegation. Inserting a rectal suppository (Choice B) and performing nasal hygiene (Choice C) involve invasive procedures that are typically performed by licensed nursing staff due to the associated risks and complexities, making them inappropriate for delegation to assistive personnel.

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