the doctor has ordered 20 cc an hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient you will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that del
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet

1. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

3. Select the criteria that is accurately paired with its indication of birth weight or gestational age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Appropriate for gestational age (AGA) indicates a neonate's weight ranging from the 10th to the 90th percentile. This range signifies that the baby's weight is within the normal range for their gestational age. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about the criteria and do not correctly correspond to the indicated birth weight or gestational age. Low birth weight typically refers to a weight below 2,500 g, large for gestational age above the 90th percentile, and small for gestational age below the 10th percentile.

4. What is the most common cause of HHNS?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

5. A client is preparing for an elective mastectomy. The client is wearing a plain gold wedding band. Which of the following is an appropriate procedure for taking care of this client's ring?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, placing the client's ring in the facility safe is the most appropriate procedure. This ensures the ring is kept secure and prevents any risk of loss or damage during the surgery. Agreeing to keep the ring for the client could raise concerns about accountability, while placing it in the bag with the client's clothing might lead to misplacement. Taping the ring securely to the client's finger is not recommended as it may hinder blood circulation or cause discomfort.

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