Nursing Elites

1. Serge, who has diabetes mellitus, is taking oral agents and is scheduled for a diagnostic test that requires him to be NPO. What is the best plan of action for the nurse regarding Serge's oral medications?

• A. Administer the oral agents immediately after the test.
• B. Notify the diagnostic department and request orders.
• C. Notify the physician and request orders.
• D. Administer the oral agents with a sip of water before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best plan of action for the nurse is to notify the physician and request orders regarding Serge's oral medications. By involving the physician, the nurse ensures that appropriate instructions are obtained, considering Serge's medical condition and the need for NPO status for the diagnostic test. Administering the medications without medical guidance (choice A) can be risky, as it may affect the test results. Notifying the diagnostic department (choice B) is not the most direct and appropriate action; the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for medication orders. Administering the medications with water before the test (choice D) is not advisable when the patient is supposed to be NPO, as it can interfere with the test requirements.

2. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
• B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
• C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
• D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.

3. The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication PO once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?

• A. 1 Tablet
• B. 2 Tablets
• C. 3 Tablets
• D. 4 Tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total dosage prescribed (500 mg) by the dosage per tablet (250 mg per tablet). 500 mg / 250 mg per tablet = 2 tablets. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 tablets. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following interdisciplinary team members should be consulted in regards to client care?

• A. Occupational therapist
• B. Case manager
• C. Nutritionist
• D. Psychiatrist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A case manager is the most appropriate interdisciplinary team member to consult for a client with anorexia nervosa. They can help coordinate care, resources, and communication between various healthcare professionals involved in the client's treatment. Consulting an occupational therapist (Choice A) may not directly address the primary concerns associated with anorexia nervosa. While nutritional therapists (Choice C) play a role in addressing nutritional needs, a case manager is better suited for overall care coordination. Mental health counselors (Choice D) focus more on emotional and psychological aspects, whereas a case manager coordinates practical aspects of care.

5. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
• D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

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