HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?
- A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
- B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
- C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
- D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.
2. What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?
- A. Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
- B. Caused by the overproduction of platelets.
- C. A bleeding disorder that is characterized by too few platelets.
- D. Treated with immune system-boosting medications.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a bleeding disorder characterized by a low number of platelets in the blood. This condition is not highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which involves abnormal clotting throughout the body (coagulation), leading to depletion of platelets. Choice B is incorrect because idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is actually characterized by a decrease in platelet count, not an overproduction. While immune system-boosting medications may be used in some cases, the primary treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura focuses on increasing platelet counts or managing symptoms.
3. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.
- A. The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises.
- B. The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises.
- C. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
- D. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out; sodium ions build up, and metabolic acidosis increases.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The progressive stage of shock is accurately described as the stage where histamine is released, leading to fluid and proteins leaking into surrounding tissues and the blood thickening. In this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, resulting in a cascade of events that worsen the shock state. Choice A is incorrect as hyperventilation and a rise in blood pH are more characteristic of the compensatory stage. Choice B is incorrect as hypoxia and a rise in lactic acid are more typical of the progressive stage. Choice D is incorrect as the described electrolyte imbalances and metabolic acidosis are more aligned with the refractory stage of shock.
4. Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?
- A. Appendicitis is more common among females than males.
- B. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis.
- C. Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis.
- D. McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis. McBurney's point is located in the right lower abdomen and tenderness at this point is a classic sign of appendicitis. Choice A is incorrect as appendicitis is slightly more common in males than females. Choice B is incorrect as a high fiber diet is actually considered to be protective against appendicitis. Choice C is incorrect as appendicitis typically presents with pain in the right lower quadrant, not the left.
5. Which skin disorder most closely resembles and mimics dandruff?
- A. Lice infestation
- B. Scabies
- C. Dermatitis
- D. Acne vulgaris
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dermatitis can closely resemble and mimic dandruff due to similar symptoms like flaking and itching. Lice infestation (choice A) is characterized by the presence of lice and their eggs attached to the hair shaft, different from dandruff. Scabies (choice B) is a contagious skin condition caused by mites, presenting as burrows, rashes, and intense itching, not typically resembling dandruff. Acne vulgaris (choice D) is a skin condition involving hair follicles and sebaceous glands, manifesting as pimples and inflammation, which is distinct from dandruff.
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