HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
- B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
- C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
- D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.
2. Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A. Subcutaneous
- B. Intramuscular
- C. IV bolus only
- D. IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion. In the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin is administered via IV bolus to quickly reduce blood glucose levels, followed by a continuous infusion to maintain control. Subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not used in this situation as they are not rapid or predictable enough to address the acute hyperglycemia seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. IV bolus alone without the continuous infusion may not provide sustained control of blood glucose levels, making choice C incorrect.
3. A charge nurse making rounds observes that an assistive personnel (AP) has applied wrist restraints to a client who is agitated and does not have a prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Remove the restraints from the client's wrists
- B. Review the chart for nonrestraint alternatives for agitation
- C. Speak with the AP about the incident
- D. Inform the unit manager of the incident
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to remove the restraints from the client's wrists. Restraints should not be applied without a prescription due to the risk of harm to the client. Removing the restraints promptly is a priority to ensure the client's safety. Reviewing nonrestraint alternatives, speaking with the AP, and informing the unit manager can follow after ensuring the client's immediate safety by removing the restraints.
4. Which of the following best describes evidence-based practice?
- A. Using outdated research
- B. Relying on personal experience alone
- C. Integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence
- D. Disregarding patient preferences
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Evidence-based practice involves integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence to make informed decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect as evidence-based practice relies on current and relevant research. Choice B is incorrect as it emphasizes the importance of not relying solely on personal experience. Choice D is incorrect as patient preferences play a significant role in evidence-based practice.
5. Jansen is receiving metformin (Glucophage). What will be the best plan of the nurse with regard to patient education with this drug? Select one that does not apply.
- A. It stimulates the pancreas to produce more insulin.
- B. It must be taken after meals.
- C. It decreases sugar production in the liver.
- D. It inhibits absorption of carbohydrates.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct choice that does not apply is A. Metformin does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin; instead, it works by decreasing sugar production in the liver, inhibiting carbohydrate absorption, and reducing insulin resistance. It is recommended to take metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not inhibit the absorption of carbohydrates.
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