Nursing Elites

1. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
• B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
• C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
• D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.

2. Select a myth or falsehood relating to pain, pain management, and addiction.

• A. Addiction can be accurately predicted.
• B. Withdrawal, drug tolerance, and physical dependence do not indicate addiction.
• C. Pain medications should be avoided in patients with a substance abuse history.
• D. Addiction is signaled by deception and stockpiling by the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because addiction cannot be accurately predicted. Choices B and C are incorrect. Withdrawal, drug tolerance, and physical dependence are not definitive signs of addiction, and pain medications can be used with patients who have a substance abuse history under careful monitoring. Choice D is incorrect because addiction is not solely signaled by deception and stockpiling; it is a complex condition with various behavioral, physical, and psychological aspects.

3. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

4. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

5. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.

• A. 38 gtts/min
• B. 42 gtts/min
• C. 50 gtts/min
• D. 40 gtts/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the rate: 1000 cc/8 hours = 125 cc/hour. 125 cc/hour * 1 drop/20 cc * 1 hour/60 minutes = 40 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 40 gtts/min. Choice A (38 gtts/min) is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculation result. Choice B (42 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate. Choice C (50 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate either.

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