Nursing Elites

1. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
• B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
• C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
• D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.

2. Steven John has type 1 diabetes mellitus and receives insulin. Which laboratory test will the nurse assess?

• A. Potassium
• B. AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
• C. Serum amylase
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. Patients with type 1 diabetes receiving insulin are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to insulin's effects on potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because AST, serum amylase, and sodium levels are not directly impacted by insulin therapy in type 1 diabetes and are not the primary concern that needs monitoring in this scenario.

3. A client with type 1 DM has a finger stick glucose level of 258mg/dl at bedtime. An order for sliding scale insulin exists. The nurse should:

• A. Call the physician
• B. Encourage the intake of fluids
• C. Administer the insulin as ordered
• D. Give the client ½ cup of orange juice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with type 1 DM has a high glucose level at bedtime. The appropriate action for the nurse is to administer the sliding scale insulin as ordered. This insulin regimen is specifically designed to manage high blood glucose levels. Calling the physician is not necessary as the protocol for sliding scale insulin is already in place. Encouraging fluid intake or providing orange juice is not the correct intervention for addressing high blood glucose levels in this case.

4. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

5. The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and:

• A. Reduces the potential pain in the wound region or area.
• B. Stops the spread of infection by creating a 'clean' area.
• C. Pushes extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue.
• D. Allows for the introduction of medications in solution form.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because wound irrigation allows for the introduction of medications in solution form to the wound site. Choice A is incorrect because while wound irrigation can help with pain management indirectly by promoting healing, its primary purpose is not to reduce pain directly. Choice B is incorrect as wound irrigation primarily aims to cleanse the wound and remove contaminants rather than creating a 'clean' area to stop infection spread. Choice C is incorrect because wound irrigation does not involve pushing extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue; its main goal is to cleanse the wound and promote healing.

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