Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse include when teaching a client at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test?

• A. This test will confirm fetal lung maturity.
• B. This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.
• C. This test will detect fetal infection.
• D. This test will predict maternal readiness for labor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.' The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring the fetal heart rate in response to its own movements. It helps determine if the fetus is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients through placental perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because confirming fetal lung maturity is typically determined through tests like amniocentesis, not the non-stress test. Choice C is incorrect because detecting fetal infection is not the primary purpose of a non-stress test. Choice D is incorrect because predicting maternal readiness for labor is not the purpose of the non-stress test; it focuses on fetal well-being.

2. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?

• A. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension.
• B. Gently massage fundus every four hours.
• C. Observe for signs of uterine hemorrhage.
• D. Encourage direct contact with the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.

3. Which of the following processes happen during mitosis?

• A. Strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) break apart.
• B. Adenine combines with its appropriate partner, cytosine.
• C. Sperm and ova cells are created.
• D. Twenty-three chromosomes are created.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct process that happens during mitosis is the breaking apart, replication, and division of DNA strands into two new cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. Choice B is incorrect because it describes base pairing in DNA, not a process specific to mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the creation of sperm and ova cells is related to meiosis, not mitosis. Choice D is incorrect because chromosomes are not created during mitosis; they are replicated and divided equally between the daughter cells.

4. Which procedure is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities?

• A. Artificial insemination
• B. Amniocentesis
• C. Endometriosis
• D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay. This blood test measures the level of AFP in a pregnant woman's blood, aiding in the detection of neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. Choice A, artificial insemination, is a method used to facilitate fertilization and is not related to detecting fetal abnormalities. Choice B, amniocentesis, involves collecting amniotic fluid for genetic testing, not directly measuring AFP levels. Choice C, endometriosis, is a medical condition involving abnormal tissue growth and is not a procedure for detecting fetal abnormalities. Therefore, the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is the most appropriate option for detecting neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities.

5. A client is 4 hours postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer indomethacin
• B. Insert a second 22-gauge IV catheter.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypovolemic shock, there is decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula can help improve oxygenation and support tissue perfusion. Indomethacin (Choice A) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and is not indicated in the management of hypovolemic shock. Inserting a second 22-gauge IV catheter (Choice B) may be necessary for fluid resuscitation, but oxygen administration takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice C) may be considered for monitoring urinary output, but it is not the priority action in managing hypovolemic shock.

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