Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse include when teaching a client at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test?

• A. This test will confirm fetal lung maturity.
• B. This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.
• C. This test will detect fetal infection.
• D. This test will predict maternal readiness for labor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.' The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring the fetal heart rate in response to its own movements. It helps determine if the fetus is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients through placental perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because confirming fetal lung maturity is typically determined through tests like amniocentesis, not the non-stress test. Choice C is incorrect because detecting fetal infection is not the primary purpose of a non-stress test. Choice D is incorrect because predicting maternal readiness for labor is not the purpose of the non-stress test; it focuses on fetal well-being.

2. What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?

• A. Amniocentesis
• B. Mitosis
• C. Meiosis
• D. Mutation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.

3. Twenty-year-old Jack is extremely tall and has very thick facial hair. Most of his male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than men of his age. In this scenario, Jack is most likely:

• A. an XYY male.
• B. diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome.
• C. an XXY male.
• D. diagnosed with Down syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: an XYY male. Individuals with XYY syndrome often exhibit increased height and more pronounced secondary male characteristics, such as thick facial hair. Choice B, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), typically presents with less prominent male secondary sex characteristics due to the presence of an extra X chromosome. Choice C, XXY male, refers to Klinefelter syndrome, which does not align with the description of Jack having more pronounced male secondary sex characteristics. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 and is not associated with the physical characteristics described in the scenario.

4. A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring?

• A. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva.
• B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions occur every 12 to 15 minutes.
• C. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions.
• D. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cervical changes such as effacement and dilation to 2 cm are strong indicators of imminent preterm labor. These changes, combined with regular contractions, can signify labor at any gestation. Estriol can be detected in maternal plasma as early as 9 weeks of gestation. Levels of salivary estriol have been linked to preterm birth. Irregular, mild contractions occurring every 12 to 15 minutes without cervical change are generally not concerning. While the presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation may predict preterm labor, its predictive value is limited (20%-40%). Therefore, cervical changes provide more reliable information regarding the risk of preterm labor.

5. Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?

• A. Multipara with contractions occurring every three minutes
• B. Multipara scheduled for non-stress test and biophysical profile
• C. Primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes
• D. Primipara with burning on urination and urinary frequency

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.

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