Nursing Elites

1. A primigravida arrives at the observation unit of the maternity unit because she thinks she is in labor. The nurse applies the external fetal heart monitor and determines that the fetal heart rate is 140 beats per minute and contractions are occurring irregularly every 10 to 15 minutes. Which assessment finding confirms to the nurse that the client is not in labor at this time?

• A. Membranes are intact.
• B. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities.
• C. Contractions decrease with walking.
• D. Cervical dilation is 1 centimeter.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Contractions that decrease with walking are typically indicative of false labor, as true labor contractions tend to intensify with activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A) Intact membranes are a normal finding and do not confirm the absence of labor. B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities is a sign of fluid retention and not directly related to labor status. D) Cervical dilation of 1 centimeter indicates some cervical changes, but it alone does not confirm active labor.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?

• A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
• B. Left Upper Abdomen
• C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
• D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process

Correct answer: A

Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.

3. A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. What is the nurse’s highest priority in this situation?

• A. Prepare the woman for imminent birth.
• B. Notify the woman’s primary healthcare provider.
• C. Document the characteristics of the fluid.
• D. Assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern (Choice D). When a multiparous woman's membranes rupture after 8 hours of labor, the nurse's priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Rupture of membranes can lead to potential complications such as umbilical cord prolapse. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and pattern immediately after the rupture of membranes is crucial to ensure the fetus is not in distress. This assessment helps in determining the need for immediate interventions to safeguard the fetus. Documenting the characteristics of the fluid (Choice C) may be necessary but is of lower priority compared to assessing fetal well-being. While preparing the woman for imminent birth (Choice A) is important, assessing the fetal heart rate takes precedence to ensure the fetus is not compromised. Notifying the woman's primary healthcare provider (Choice B) is also important but not the highest priority at this moment.

4. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?

• A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
• B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
• C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
• D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.

5. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?

• A. A client who has active genital herpes
• B. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus
• C. A client who has a previous uterine incision
• D. A client who has placenta previa

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Misoprostol can be used for induction in clients with gestational diabetes mellitus. Choice A, a client with active genital herpes, is not a candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of viral shedding and transmission. Choice C, a client with a previous uterine incision, may be at risk for uterine rupture with misoprostol use. Choice D, a client with placenta previa, is not an appropriate candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of increased bleeding associated with the condition.

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