Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following processes happen during mitosis?

• A. Strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) break apart.
• B. Adenine combines with its appropriate partner, cytosine.
• C. Sperm and ova cells are created.
• D. Twenty-three chromosomes are created.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct process that happens during mitosis is the breaking apart, replication, and division of DNA strands into two new cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. Choice B is incorrect because it describes base pairing in DNA, not a process specific to mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the creation of sperm and ova cells is related to meiosis, not mitosis. Choice D is incorrect because chromosomes are not created during mitosis; they are replicated and divided equally between the daughter cells.

2. What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for males?

• A. XX
• B. XYY
• C. XY
• D. XXY

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In males, the typical sex chromosome pattern consists of one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Choice A (XX) is the sex chromosome pattern for females. Choice B (XYY) is a chromosomal disorder where males have an extra Y chromosome. Choice D (XXY) is the sex chromosome pattern associated with Klinefelter syndrome, a condition where males have an extra X chromosome.

3. _____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.

• A. Rubella
• B. Syphilis
• C. Preeclampsia
• D. Phenylketonuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.

4. Which neonatal complications are associated with hypertension in the mother?

• A. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and prematurity.
• B. Seizures and cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. Hepatic or renal dysfunction.
• D. Placental abruption and DIC.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neonatal complications associated with maternal hypertension are primarily due to placental insufficiency. The correct answer is A, which includes Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR) and prematurity. These complications arise from inadequate blood flow to the fetus, leading to growth restriction and premature birth. Choices B, seizures, and cerebral hemorrhage are more commonly maternal complications rather than neonatal ones. Choice C, hepatic or renal dysfunction, pertains to maternal complications of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, not neonatal issues. Choice D, placental abruption, and Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) are conditions linked to maternal morbidity and mortality, not neonatal complications.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Minimal arm recoil
• B. Popliteal angle of less than 90°
• C. Creases over the entire sole
• D. Sparse lanugo

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.

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