HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn
1. A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
- B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
- C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
- D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.
2. _____ is a type of estrogen, prescribed in the 1940s and 1950s to pregnant women, that is said to have caused testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer in some offspring.
- A. Androsterone
- B. Adiponectin
- C. Progestin
- D. Diethylstilbestrol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is a synthetic estrogen that was prescribed to pregnant women in the 1940s and 1950s to prevent miscarriages. However, it was later discovered that DES exposure in utero could lead to health issues in offspring, including an increased risk of testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer. Choice A, Androsterone, is a steroid hormone produced in small amounts in humans and unlikely to be associated with the adverse effects described. Choice B, Adiponectin, is a protein hormone that plays a role in regulating glucose levels and fatty acid breakdown, not related to the adverse effects mentioned. Choice C, Progestin, is a synthetic form of progesterone used in birth control and hormone therapy, not linked to the specific health concerns associated with DES exposure.
3. A client is 4 hours postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer indomethacin
- B. Insert a second 22-gauge IV catheter.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hypovolemic shock, there is decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula can help improve oxygenation and support tissue perfusion. Indomethacin (Choice A) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and is not indicated in the management of hypovolemic shock. Inserting a second 22-gauge IV catheter (Choice B) may be necessary for fluid resuscitation, but oxygen administration takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice C) may be considered for monitoring urinary output, but it is not the priority action in managing hypovolemic shock.
4. A client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself at home during the last 2 months of pregnancy is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “I will count baby’s kicks every other day.”
- B. “I will alternate the arm used to check my blood pressure.”
- C. “I will consume 50 grams of protein daily.”
- D. ---
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alternating arms for blood pressure checks ensures more accurate readings and helps monitor preeclampsia. Option A, counting baby's kicks every other day, is not specific to managing preeclampsia. Option C, consuming 50 grams of protein daily, is important for a healthy diet during pregnancy but does not directly relate to preeclampsia management.
5. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?
- A. Perform a guaiac test and record the results.
- B. Recognize the finding as abnormal and report it to the primary health care provider.
- C. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
- D. Check the woman’s next stool to validate the observation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.
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