Nursing Elites

1. A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL, hematocrit 29%, hepatitis surface antigen positive, Group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non-immune. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse 2 units of packed red blood cells.
• B. Give measles, mumps, rubella vaccine 0.5 mL.
• C. Administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously.
• D. Inject hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5 milliliters.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention in this scenario is to administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously. This is crucial to prevent Group B Streptococcus infection in the newborn during delivery. Option A, transfusing packed red blood cells, is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels provided. Option B, giving measles, mumps, rubella vaccine, is not necessary at this time. Option D, injecting hepatitis B immune globulin, is not appropriate for the conditions presented in the question.

2. Preconception counseling is crucial for the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy?

• A. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia
• B. Congenital anomalies in the fetus
• C. Hydramnios
• D. Hyperemesis gravidarum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preconception counseling is essential as strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation helps reduce the risk of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia usually occur during the first trimester due to hormonal changes, affecting insulin production and use, rather than before conception. Hydramnios is more common in diabetic pregnancies, typically seen in the third trimester, not during early pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum, although it may lead to hypoglycemic events, is related to decreased food intake and glucose transfer to the fetus, exacerbating hypoglycemia rather than being directly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy.

3. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection that, in advanced stages, can attack major organ systems?

• A. Rubella
• B. Syphilis
• C. Cystic fibrosis
• D. Phenylketonuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Syphilis is the correct answer. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. If left untreated, it can progress through various stages and potentially attack major organ systems, causing severe complications. Rubella, Cystic fibrosis, and Phenylketonuria are not sexually transmitted infections. Rubella is a viral infection, Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system, and Phenylketonuria is a genetic metabolic disorder. These conditions do not typically affect major organ systems in the same way as untreated syphilis.

4. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

• A. Group B strep culture
• B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
• C. Rubella titer
• D. Blood type and Rh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

5. Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.

• A. rod-shaped
• B. circular
• C. cone-shaped
• D. octagonal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are typically seen as elongated structures when visualized under a microscope. Choice B, circular, is incorrect as chromosomes do not have a circular shape; they are linear. Choice C, cone-shaped, is not accurate as chromosomes do not resemble cones in any way. Choice D, octagonal, is also incorrect as chromosomes do not have an octagonal appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is A, rod-shaped, which accurately describes the shape of chromosomes.

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