HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 6 hours old and has a bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL. The newborn’s mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a blood sample for a serum glucose level
- B. Feed the newborn immediately
- C. Administer 50 mL of dextrose solution IV
- D. Reassess the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL is within the normal range for a newborn. Reassessing the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding ensures ongoing monitoring without unnecessary intervention. Obtaining a blood sample for a serum glucose level (Choice A) is not necessary as the initial reading is normal. Feeding the newborn immediately (Choice B) may not be indicated and could lead to unnecessary interventions. Administering dextrose solution IV (Choice C) is not warranted as the glucose level is within the normal range and does not require immediate correction.
2. A client who is 5 days postpartum is being taught about signs of effective breastfeeding. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Feeling a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking
- B. Expecting the baby to have two to three wet diapers in a 24-hour period
- C. The baby’s urine should appear dark and concentrated
- D. The breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Feeling a tugging sensation while the baby is sucking indicates an effective latch and milk transfer during breastfeeding. This sensation means that the baby is effectively drawing milk from the breast. Choice B is incorrect because infants should ideally have six to eight wet diapers in a 24-hour period to show adequate hydration. Choice C is incorrect as a dark and concentrated urine may indicate dehydration, which is not a sign of effective breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as the breast should soften after the baby breastfeeds, indicating that the baby has effectively emptied the breast of milk.
3. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
- A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
- B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
- C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
- D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.
4. Do neural tube defects cause an elevation in the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in the mother’s blood?
- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Possibly
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Yes, neural tube defects can cause an elevation in AFP levels in the mother’s blood. AFP levels are often used as a screening marker during pregnancy to detect neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because an elevation in AFP levels can indeed occur in the presence of neural tube defects. Choice C is not the best option as it leaves room for uncertainty when the relationship between neural tube defects and AFP elevation is well-established. Choice D is incorrect as neural tube defects are known to influence AFP levels in the maternal blood.
5. A client tells the nurse that she thinks she's pregnant. Which signs or symptoms provide the best indication that the client is pregnant?
- A. Morning sickness.
- B. Breast tenderness.
- C. Amenorrhea.
- D. Hegar's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hegar's sign, which is a softening of the lower uterine segment, is considered a probable sign of pregnancy as it indicates changes in the cervix and uterus that occur during pregnancy. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is a common early sign of pregnancy but can also be due to other factors. Morning sickness, nausea and vomiting, can be a sign of early pregnancy but is not as specific as Hegar's sign. Breast tenderness is a common symptom in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes, but it is not as definitive as Hegar's sign in indicating pregnancy.
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