HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 6 hours old and has a bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL. The newborn’s mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a blood sample for a serum glucose level
- B. Feed the newborn immediately
- C. Administer 50 mL of dextrose solution IV
- D. Reassess the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL is within the normal range for a newborn. Reassessing the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding ensures ongoing monitoring without unnecessary intervention. Obtaining a blood sample for a serum glucose level (Choice A) is not necessary as the initial reading is normal. Feeding the newborn immediately (Choice B) may not be indicated and could lead to unnecessary interventions. Administering dextrose solution IV (Choice C) is not warranted as the glucose level is within the normal range and does not require immediate correction.
2. Which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia?
- A. European American
- B. Native American
- C. African American
- D. Asian American
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is most commonly found in individuals of African American descent. This is because sickle cell trait provides some protection against malaria, and historically, regions where malaria is or was prevalent have higher rates of sickle cell anemia. Therefore, individuals with African ancestry are at a higher risk of developing sickle cell anemia compared to other populations. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to develop sickle cell anemia due to lower genetic prevalence in their respective populations.
3. A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was 1500 ml. When evaluating the woman’s vital signs, which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 beats per minute (bpm), respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg.
- B. Temperature 37.4°C, heart rate 88 bpm, respirations 36 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 126/68 mm Hg.
- C. Temperature 38°C, heart rate 80 bpm, respirations 16 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg.
- D. Temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 60 bpm, respirations 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An estimated blood loss (EBL) of 1500 ml following a vaginal birth is significant and can lead to hypovolemia. The vital signs provided in option A (Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg) indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which are concerning signs of hypovolemia due to excessive blood loss. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased blood volume, and hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D do not exhibit the same level of concern for hypovolemia. Option B shows tachypnea, which can be a result of pain or anxiety postpartum. Option C and D have vital signs within normal limits, which are not indicative of the body's response to significant blood loss.
4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. Ampicillin 1 gram IV push every 8 hours
- B. Betamethasone 12 mg deep IM
- C. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 15 minutes for 3 doses
- D. Butorphanol tartrate 1 mg IV push every 2 hours as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to stimulate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic and does not prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Terbutaline (Choice C) is a tocolytic used to inhibit contractions and does not directly prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Butorphanol tartrate (Choice D) is an opioid analgesic and does not have a role in preventing respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.
5. Which of the following statements is true about Tay-Sachs disease?
- A. It is most commonly found among children in Jewish families of Eastern European background.
- B. Children who have this disease suffer from excessive production of mucus in the lungs and pancreas.
- C. It is most commonly found among children in Asian American families.
- D. Children who have this disease suffer from muscular dystrophy characterized by a weakening of the muscles.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tay-Sachs disease is most commonly found among Jewish families of Eastern European descent. It is a fatal genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. Choice B is incorrect because Tay-Sachs disease does not involve excessive mucus production in the lungs and pancreas. Choice C is incorrect as it states that Tay-Sachs disease is most commonly found among Asian American families, which is inaccurate. Choice D is also incorrect because Tay-Sachs disease does not cause muscular dystrophy characterized by weakening of the muscles.
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