Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 6 hours old and has a bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL. The newborn’s mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood sample for a serum glucose level
• B. Feed the newborn immediately
• C. Administer 50 mL of dextrose solution IV
• D. Reassess the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL is within the normal range for a newborn. Reassessing the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding ensures ongoing monitoring without unnecessary intervention. Obtaining a blood sample for a serum glucose level (Choice A) is not necessary as the initial reading is normal. Feeding the newborn immediately (Choice B) may not be indicated and could lead to unnecessary interventions. Administering dextrose solution IV (Choice C) is not warranted as the glucose level is within the normal range and does not require immediate correction.

2. A 16-year-old gravida 1 para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She's not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client's nursing care plan?

• A. Allow liberal family visitation
• B. Keep an airway at the bedside
• C. Assess temperature every hour
• D. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping an airway at the bedside is crucial for a client with eclampsia, as there is a high risk of seizures that can obstruct the airway. Allowing liberal family visitation (choice A) may not be a priority at this time and can be overwhelming for the client. Assessing temperature every hour (choice C) is not directly related to managing eclampsia. Monitoring blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours (choice D) is important but not as immediate as ensuring airway patency.

3. A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
• B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
• C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
• D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.

4. According to a study conducted in 2013 by Fellman, what affects the chances of having twins?

• A. Increase when a woman conceives at a younger age.
• B. Increase with parental age.
• C. Decrease with the frequency of intercourse before conception.
• D. Decrease with the use of fertility drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. According to the study by Fellman in 2013, the chances of having twins actually increase with parental age. Choice A is incorrect as the study does not specify a younger age for conceiving to increase the chances of twins. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of intercourse before conception is not a highlighted factor in the study. Choice D is also incorrect as the study does not discuss the impact of fertility drugs on the likelihood of having twins.

5. A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?

• A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds
• B. Contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart
• C. Absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate
• D. Fetal heart rate is 140/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds are prolonged, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure timely management and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice B, contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart, is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate, is a reassuring finding suggesting fetal well-being. Choice D, a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is also normal for a fetus and does not typically require immediate reporting unless it deviates significantly from the baseline or is accompanied by other concerning signs.

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