Nursing Elites

1. A newborn is scheduled to start phototherapy using a lamp. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Apply a thin layer of lotion to the newborn's skin every 8 hours.
• B. Give the newborn 1 oz of glucose water every 4 hours.
• C. Ensure the newborn's eyes are closed beneath the shield.
• D. Dress the newborn in a thin layer of clothing during therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During phototherapy using a lamp, it is crucial to protect the newborn's eyes from the light to prevent damage. Closing the newborn's eyes beneath the shield is essential for this purpose. Applying lotion to the skin (Choice A) is not recommended as it can intensify the effects of the phototherapy. Giving glucose water (Choice B) is unrelated to the phototherapy process and is not indicated. Dressing the newborn in clothing (Choice D) may hinder the effectiveness of the phototherapy by blocking the light exposure to the skin.

2. A client at 37 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with contractions every two minutes. The nurse observes several shallow small vesicles on her pubis, labia, and perineum. The nurse should recognize the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?

• A. Genital Warts
• B. Syphilis
• C. Herpes Simplex Virus
• D. German Measles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). HSV can present with small vesicles on the genital area, and it is a concern during labor due to the risk of transmission to the newborn. Genital warts (Choice A) are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and typically present as flesh-colored growths, not vesicles. Syphilis (Choice B) manifests as painless sores and can have systemic effects but does not typically present with vesicles. German measles (Choice D), also known as Rubella, is a viral illness characterized by a red rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy, not vesicles.

3. A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
• B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
• C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
• D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.

4. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

5. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome produce:

• A. less estrogen than normal males.
• B. less testosterone than normal males.
• C. less adenine than normal males.
• D. less thymine than normal males.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY), leading to reduced production of testosterone, the primary male sex hormone. This deficiency can result in various physical and developmental characteristics associated with the syndrome. Estrogen levels may actually be relatively elevated due to the imbalance between testosterone and estrogen. Choices C and D are incorrect as adenine and thymine are nucleotide bases found in DNA and are not related to hormone production.

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