which information regarding the care of antepartum women with cardiac conditions is most important for the nurse to understand
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. Which information regarding the care of antepartum women with cardiac conditions is most important for the nurse to understand?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Class II cardiac disease is symptomatic with ordinary activity. Women in this category need to avoid heavy exertion and limit regular activities as symptoms dictate. Stress is greatest between weeks 28 and 32 of gestation, when hemodynamic changes reach their maximum. Class III cardiac disease is symptomatic with less-than-ordinary activity. These women need bed rest most of the day and face the possibility of hospitalization near term. Class I cardiac disease is asymptomatic at normal levels of activity. These women can perform limited normal activities with discretion, although they still need a good amount of sleep.

2. A client who is pregnant and follows a vegan diet asks a nurse for guidance on foods high in calcium. Which of the following foods has the highest amount of calcium?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of cooked broccoli. Broccoli is an excellent source of calcium, making it a suitable choice for a vegan diet. Avocado (Choice A), banana (Choice B), and potato (Choice C) are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli. Avocado and banana are primarily sources of other nutrients like healthy fats and potassium, respectively. Potato is a good source of vitamin C and potassium but not calcium. Therefore, for a pregnant client following a vegan diet and seeking calcium-rich foods, cooked broccoli is the most appropriate choice.

3. According to a study in the year 2013 by Fellman, if a woman is a twin, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins, then:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the study, the chances of a woman bearing twins increase if she is a twin herself, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A is incorrect because the study does not specify that she will bear only monozygotic twins. Choice B is incorrect as the study does not mention any decrease in the chances of becoming pregnant. Choice C is incorrect because the study does not provide information about the woman's health status, focusing instead on the likelihood of bearing twins.

4. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

5. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection that, in advanced stages, can attack major organ systems?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Syphilis is the correct answer. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. If left untreated, it can progress through various stages and potentially attack major organ systems, causing severe complications. Rubella, Cystic fibrosis, and Phenylketonuria are not sexually transmitted infections. Rubella is a viral infection, Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system, and Phenylketonuria is a genetic metabolic disorder. These conditions do not typically affect major organ systems in the same way as untreated syphilis.

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