Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 5 days postpartum is being taught about signs of effective breastfeeding. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Feeling a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking
• B. Expecting the baby to have two to three wet diapers in a 24-hour period
• C. The baby’s urine should appear dark and concentrated
• D. The breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Feeling a tugging sensation while the baby is sucking indicates an effective latch and milk transfer during breastfeeding. This sensation means that the baby is effectively drawing milk from the breast. Choice B is incorrect because infants should ideally have six to eight wet diapers in a 24-hour period to show adequate hydration. Choice C is incorrect as a dark and concentrated urine may indicate dehydration, which is not a sign of effective breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as the breast should soften after the baby breastfeeds, indicating that the baby has effectively emptied the breast of milk.

2. Following a traumatic delivery, an infant receives an initial Apgar score of 3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Page the pediatrician STAT
• B. Continue resuscitative efforts
• C. Repeat the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes
• D. Inform the parents of the infant's condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where an infant receives a low Apgar score of 3 following a traumatic delivery, the most crucial intervention for the nurse to implement is to continue resuscitative efforts. A low Apgar score indicates that the newborn is in distress and requires immediate medical attention to support breathing, heart rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Continuing resuscitative efforts is essential to provide life-saving interventions promptly. Paging the pediatrician may cause a delay in crucial interventions, repeating the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes is not appropriate as immediate action is needed to stabilize the infant, and informing parents should not take precedence over providing immediate medical care to the newborn.

3. Which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia?

• A. European American
• B. Native American
• C. African American
• D. Asian American

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is most commonly found in individuals of African American descent. This is because sickle cell trait provides some protection against malaria, and historically, regions where malaria is or was prevalent have higher rates of sickle cell anemia. Therefore, individuals with African ancestry are at a higher risk of developing sickle cell anemia compared to other populations. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to develop sickle cell anemia due to lower genetic prevalence in their respective populations.

4. Tim, a 27-year-old man, has unusually narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and has no facial and body hair. His doctor recently prescribed testosterone replacement therapy to him. Tim is most likely suffering from:

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
• B. Cystic fibrosis.
• C. Klinefelter syndrome.
• D. Huntington’s disease (HD).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tim's physical characteristics, such as narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and lack of facial and body hair, are typical signs of Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic condition where males have an extra X chromosome (XXY). This leads to underdeveloped testes and reduced testosterone production, resulting in features like gynecomastia, sparse facial and body hair, and reduced muscle mass. Testosterone replacement therapy is commonly used to address the hormonal imbalance in individuals with Klinefelter syndrome. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the symptoms described in Tim's case. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic respiratory condition that does not present with the physical characteristics mentioned. Huntington’s disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder primarily affecting motor function and cognition, not physical appearance and muscle mass.

5. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
• B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
• C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
• D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

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