HESI LPN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions
1. A client who is 5 days postpartum is being taught about signs of effective breastfeeding. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Feeling a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking
- B. Expecting the baby to have two to three wet diapers in a 24-hour period
- C. The baby’s urine should appear dark and concentrated
- D. The breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Feeling a tugging sensation while the baby is sucking indicates an effective latch and milk transfer during breastfeeding. This sensation means that the baby is effectively drawing milk from the breast. Choice B is incorrect because infants should ideally have six to eight wet diapers in a 24-hour period to show adequate hydration. Choice C is incorrect as a dark and concentrated urine may indicate dehydration, which is not a sign of effective breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as the breast should soften after the baby breastfeeds, indicating that the baby has effectively emptied the breast of milk.
2. The nurse is receiving a report for a laboring client who arrived in the emergency center with ruptured membranes that the client did not recognize. Which is the priority nursing action to implement when the client is admitted to the labor and delivery suite?
- A. Begin a pad count
- B. Prepare to start an IV
- C. Take the client's temperature
- D. Monitor amniotic fluid for meconium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing action when a client with ruptured membranes is admitted to the labor and delivery suite is to take the client's temperature. This is crucial to assess for infection, especially when the duration of membrane rupture is unknown. Beginning a pad count, preparing to start an IV, and monitoring amniotic fluid for meconium are important actions but are not as immediate or critical as assessing for infection through temperature measurement.
3. Chromosomes contain thousands of segments called:
- A. nuclei.
- B. nodes.
- C. capillaries.
- D. genes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chromosomes are structures composed of DNA and genes. Genes are the functional segments within chromosomes that encode specific traits and characteristics. The other choices ('nuclei,' 'nodes,' 'capillaries') do not accurately describe the segments found within chromosomes and are unrelated to their structure or function.
4. How many pairs of autosomes does a human zygote contain?
- A. 46
- B. 44
- C. 23
- D. 22
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A human zygote contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes, totaling 46 chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 22. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the number of autosomes in a human zygote. Option A (46) represents the total number of chromosomes in a human zygote, not the number of autosomes. Option B (44) is incorrect as it does not account for the correct number of autosomes. Option C (23) is inaccurate since it represents the total number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the number of autosomes in a zygote.
5. Polygenic traits are those that are:
- A. developed during adolescence.
- B. transmitted by the mother.
- C. uncommon in humans.
- D. determined by several pairs of genes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Polygenic traits, such as height and skin color, are determined by several pairs of genes working together. These traits are influenced by the combined effects of multiple genes across the genome, rather than being controlled by a single gene pair. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because polygenic traits are not specifically developed during adolescence, transmitted by the mother, or uncommon in humans. Understanding polygenic traits is essential in genetics as they demonstrate the complexity of genetic inheritance and the influence of multiple genes on a single trait.
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