Nursing Elites

1. What is the highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy?

• A. Assessing FHR and maternal vital signs.
• B. Performing a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
• C. Placing clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
• D. Monitoring uterine contractions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs. This assessment is crucial in determining the extent of blood loss and its impact on both the mother and the fetus. Ensuring the well-being of both the mother and the fetus is the top priority in this situation. While obtaining hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important, it can be done after the initial assessment. Placing clean disposable pads is necessary for managing any drainage but does not take precedence over assessing vital signs. Monitoring uterine contractions is important but is not the highest priority when compared to assessing the FHR and maternal vital signs.

2. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?

• A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
• D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.

3. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

4. Which of the following processes happen during mitosis?

• A. Strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) break apart.
• B. Adenine combines with its appropriate partner, cytosine.
• C. Sperm and ova cells are created.
• D. Twenty-three chromosomes are created.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct process that happens during mitosis is the breaking apart, replication, and division of DNA strands into two new cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. Choice B is incorrect because it describes base pairing in DNA, not a process specific to mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the creation of sperm and ova cells is related to meiosis, not mitosis. Choice D is incorrect because chromosomes are not created during mitosis; they are replicated and divided equally between the daughter cells.

5. A newborn assessment reveals spina bifida occulta. Which maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of this newborn complication?

• A. Tobacco use.
• B. Folic acid deficiency.
• C. Short interval between pregnancies.
• D. Preeclampsia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is strongly associated with neural tube defects like spina bifida occulta. Adequate folic acid intake before and during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of such complications. Tobacco use (Choice A) is linked to other adverse outcomes but not specifically spina bifida occulta. Short intervals between pregnancies (Choice C) can increase the risk of preterm birth and low birth weight but are not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia (Choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that poses risks to both the mother and baby but is not the primary factor contributing to spina bifida occulta development.

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