which of the following happens in the critical period that occurs in the fourth through eighth weeks of a pregnancy
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Maternity HESI Test Bank

1. During which of the following periods does the development of arms and legs occur in a pregnancy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The development of arms and legs occurs during the critical period of the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy. This timeframe is crucial for the formation of limbs and other key body parts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the development of the lungs, heart, and stomach respectively occurs at different stages of fetal development and is not primarily associated with the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy.

2. At 12 hours after the birth of a healthy infant, the mother complains of feeling constant vaginal pressure. The nurse determines the fundus is firm and at midline with moderate rubra lochia. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the mother's complaint of constant vaginal pressure along with a firm fundus and moderate rubra lochia indicates a potential perineal injury or hematoma. The correct action for the nurse to take is to inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas to assess for any signs of trauma or hematoma. Checking the suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) is not the priority here since the symptoms suggest a perineal issue. Advising a warm sitz bath (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen any existing trauma. Applying a fresh pad and checking in 1 hour (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate assessment of the perineal and rectal areas in response to the reported symptoms.

3. According to a study in the year 2013 by Fellman, if a woman is a twin, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins, then:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the study, the chances of a woman bearing twins increase if she is a twin herself, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A is incorrect because the study does not specify that she will bear only monozygotic twins. Choice B is incorrect as the study does not mention any decrease in the chances of becoming pregnant. Choice C is incorrect because the study does not provide information about the woman's health status, focusing instead on the likelihood of bearing twins.

4. An individual’s phenotype reflects both genetic and environmental influences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: phenotype. A phenotype is the observable characteristics of an individual, which result from the interaction of their genotype with the environment. This interaction between genetics and the environment determines how genes are expressed and how traits are manifested in an individual. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chromosomes, alleles, and genotypes are components of an individual's genetic makeup, but they do not directly reflect the observable traits influenced by both genetics and the environment.

5. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

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