Nursing Elites

1. Do dizygotic (DZ) twins run in families?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. Rarely
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, dizygotic (DZ) twins can run in families. This is due to genetic factors that influence hyperovulation, where a woman releases multiple eggs during her menstrual cycle. This genetic predisposition can be passed down through generations, increasing the likelihood of having dizygotic twins. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the statement that dizygotic twins run in families is true, as supported by scientific evidence. It is important to note that while the genetic predisposition for dizygotic twins can run in families, it does not guarantee that every generation will have twins, as other factors also play a role in twin pregnancies.

2. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

3. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

• A. Uterine atony.
• B. Uterine inversion.
• C. Vaginal hematoma.
• D. Vaginal laceration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

4. Monozygotic (MZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.

• A. 100
• B. 75
• C. 50
• D. 25

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monozygotic (MZ) twins share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two, resulting in identical genetic material for both twins. Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it implies a partial genetic similarity, which is not the case for MZ twins. Choice C (50%) is incorrect as it suggests half of the genes are shared, which is applicable to dizygotic (DZ) twins, not MZ. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it indicates minimal genetic sharing, which is not true for MZ twins.

5. A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?

• A. Abruptio Placenta
• B. Placenta Previa
• C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
• D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.

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