Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?

• A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
• B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
• C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
• D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is pregnant. The healthcare provider should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase?

• A. RBC count
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Fasting blood glucose
• D. BUN

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, the body increases the production of red blood cells (RBCs) to meet the increased oxygen demands. This physiological response is known as physiological anemia of pregnancy. Therefore, the RBC count is expected to increase during pregnancy. Bilirubin levels may remain relatively stable, fasting blood glucose levels might fluctuate due to gestational diabetes, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are not typically affected by pregnancy, making them less likely to increase in this scenario. The correct answer is A because an increase in RBC count is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy to support the increased oxygen needs of the mother and the growing fetus. Bilirubin, a product of red blood cell breakdown, is more related to liver function and not expected to increase during pregnancy. Fasting blood glucose levels may vary due to gestational diabetes, but it is not a consistent finding in all pregnant individuals. BUN levels are related to kidney function and are not typically impacted by pregnancy, making it an unlikely choice for an expected increase in laboratory values during pregnancy.

3. According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?

• A. Jennifer, a dancer, who has Down syndrome
• B. Frank, a teacher, who is diagnosed with XYY syndrome
• C. Peter, a fashion designer, who has Klinefelter syndrome
• D. Ria, a gym instructor, who is diagnosed with Turner syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.

4. Preconception counseling is crucial for the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy?

• A. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia
• B. Congenital anomalies in the fetus
• C. Hydramnios
• D. Hyperemesis gravidarum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preconception counseling is essential as strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation helps reduce the risk of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia usually occur during the first trimester due to hormonal changes, affecting insulin production and use, rather than before conception. Hydramnios is more common in diabetic pregnancies, typically seen in the third trimester, not during early pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum, although it may lead to hypoglycemic events, is related to decreased food intake and glucose transfer to the fetus, exacerbating hypoglycemia rather than being directly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy.

5. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

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